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Exam Code: 190-849
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 SysAdmn: Managing Users and Servers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which task performs the operation of obtaining diagnostic data after server and client crashes?
A. Fault Analyzer
B. Fault Recovery
C. Event Handler Notification
D. Automatic Diagnostic Collection
Answer: D

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NO.2 New and updated features and plug-ins for the Lotus Notes client are downloaded from which of the
following?
A. Client sites
B. Updates sites
C. Smart Upgrade sites
D. Provisioning client
Answer: B

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NO.3 Smart Upgrade failover utilizes what search order?
A. By document link in the Notes client
B. By server name and hard-coded path to the Smart Upgrade database
C. By database replica ID and database name in the home server cluster
D. By notes.ini variable on the client listing all servers in the domain the Smart Upgrade database may be
found on
Answer: C

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NO.4 Liz wishes to disable transaction logging for a particular database on a server with transaction logging
enabled. However, she cannot see the Advanced Database Properties to do so. What is the cause of
this?
A. She is not in the Administrators field on the server document.
B. She cannot selectively turn off transaction logging for individual databases.
C. She must add the notes.ini line to the server DisableTransLog=name of database.
D. Transaction logging can only be disabled per document, not for an entire database.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Jordan, the Domino administrator, has configured replication probes in DDM but nothing is being
reported into the DDM database. What could be the possible cause of this?
A. Replication is up to date and was attempted, but was considered Null.
B. Replication was attempted but the destination server could not be reached for the probe check.
C. Replication was performed and numerous changes were made to the source database and none to the
spokes.
D. Replication was attempted but the source server did not have proper access to replicate so replication
was skipped.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is enabled when the administrator specifies the maximum number of Smart
Upgrade attempts by specifying a value in the field "Maximum Concurrent Downloads"?
A. Smart Upgrade Limits
B. Smart Upgrade Maximum
C. Smart Upgrade Interval
D. Smart Upgrade Governor
Answer: D

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NO.7 The Marble Corporation has chosen to allow users the ability to initiate Eclipse updates. In which of
the following locations do they enable this ability?
A. The server document
B. The security policy document
C. The server configuration document and the client notes.ini
D. The desktop policy document and the plugin_customization.ini file
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are enabling a policy for the Productivity Tools. Which of the following is NOT available to
configure in this policy?
A. The ability to open SmartSuite files
B. The ability to allow the user to run macros
C. The ability to allow the use of Productivity Tools
D. The ability to restrict attaching Productivity Tool documents
Answer: D

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NO.9 Cherelle, the Domino administrator, is launching Server Health Monitoring for the first time. What
tasks are monitored by default for each server?
A. HTTP, SMTP, Adminp and the Amgr
B. The core server task, HTTP, SMTP and Adminp
C. No tasks until the administrator configures the monitoring for each server
D. All tasks currently running when the Server Health Monitor is first launched
Answer: D

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NO.10 The Domino administrator has enabled auto-save for all users. Where are auto-save documents
stored?
A. To a user's local database
B. To a user's mail database located on the server
C. To an administrator defined server database per user
D. To an administrator defined central repository database
Answer: A

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NO.11 In which of the following databases does the Server Health Monitor store it's health reports?
A. shmon.nsf
B. dommon.nsf
C. statrep.nsf
D. serverhm.nsf
Answer: B

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NO.12 You want to restrict simple search to enhance server performance by preventing users from searching
databases on a server that do not have full-text search enabled. In which of the following locations is this
configured?
A. The server document
B. The server notes.ini
C. The server configuration document
D. The advanced properties of each database
Answer: D

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NO.13 Breanna has registered a roaming user. By default, where are the user's files stored?
A. On all servers
B. On all mail servers
C. On the user's mail server
D. On the user's file server
Answer: C

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NO.14 When setting up automatic diagnostic collection for clients, you can designate which of the following?
A. Whether this feature should log the fault recovery into the local log.nsf database on the client
B. Whether this feature should export the document into an Excel spreadsheet to categorize the fault
C. Whether this feature is invisible to users or should users be prompted to designate if they want to send
a diagnostic report to the mail-in database
D. Whether this feature should create a file that gets automatically upload to the Domino HTTP server to
allow client reporting from any location over any connection speed
Answer: C

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NO.15 The condensed Directory Catalog is created from which template?
A. dircat.ntf
B. dircat5.ntf
C. dircat7.ntf
D. catalog.ntf
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following is not available for modification with the install manifest?
A. Sametime
B. Activities
C. IBM Productivity Tools
D. Composite application editor
Answer: A

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NO.17 When installing the Notes client, what documents are created by default that contain communication,
Java applet security and port information?
A. Account
B. Location C. Connection
D. Certificate
Answer: B

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NO.18 The Smart Upgrade function can be configured to adjust an installation between just the Notes client or
all clients automatically. Where is the parameter read to make this automatic adjustment?
A. The Notes client notes.ini file
B. The Domino server notes.ini file that holds the Smart Upgrade database
C. The server document for the server that holds the Smart Upgrade database
D. The server configuration document for the server that holds the Smart Upgrade database
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following mail features is not available in the basic version of the Lotus Notes client?
A. Message recall
B. Attention indicators
C. Choice of preview pane location
D. Reply to all without attachments
Answer: C

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NO.20 Shawn has modified a DDM probe document. What must be performed for this probe change to
become active immediately?
A. Run the console command "reload probes".
B. Run the console command "restart probes".
C. Do nothing as modified probe documents take effect immediately.
D. Probes are automatically reloaded based on the configuration time specified in DDM.nsf.
Answer: C

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Exam 630-008 VCE

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Exam Code: 630-008
Exam Name: ISM (C.P.M. Module 4: Management)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 360 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Certkiller .com has more than 10,000 employees located on two regional branches
and on several smaller branches. Annual purchases of goods and services for
Certkiller .com exceed $150 million. In which of the following ways would
Certkiller .com LEAST likely benefit from a highly centralized purchasing function?
A. Improvements due to decreased duplication of effort.
B. Adherence to organization-wide standards and objectives.
C. Savings from standardization and improved economies of scale.
D. Satisfaction of product and source preferences for internal customers.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is LEAST important when evaluating buyer performance?
A. Quality of work.
B. Quantity of work.
C. Personal appearance.
D. Communication skills.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the training method that facilitates the development of organization-wide
skills and requires good interpersonal skills called?
A. Functional rotation.
B. On-the-job training.
C. The "buddy" system.
D. Continuing education.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which of the following defines a situation where objectives are more general at
the top of an organization and become more specific as one moves down the
organization?
A. Hierarchy of objectives.
B. Management By Objectives (MBO).
C. Decision support system.
D. Goal setting.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following documents is MOST important in transportation?
A. Bill of materials.
B. Bill of lading.
C. Bill of sale.
D. Manifest.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. An employee that has been at
Certkiller .com for 20-years has become accustomed to coming to work 30-45
minutes late. Initially, this was due to child-rearing responsibilities, but now is a
simply habit. The supervisor has asked the employee several times if there was a
problem and the answer has always been "no." The problem is beginning to have a
negative impact on the morale of the rest of the department. Which of the following
would be your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Dismiss the employee.
B. Have the employee attend counseling sessions.
C. Ask the human resources department to intervene and find a solution to the problem.
D. Set goals with the employee to improve on arrival time, and include a written report in
the employee's file.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of promoting from within the
purchasing organization?
A. Keeping morale high.
B. Reducing training costs.
C. Stimulating individual performance.
D. Bringing experience in complementary areas.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following can BEST enhance a measurement and control system for
evaluating buyer performance?
A. Including the buyer in the design of the system.
B. Including human resources in the design of the system.
C. Making a composite measurement of efficiency and effectiveness.
D. Being sufficiently broad in scope to allow the measurement of all contingencies.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following statements regarding the orientation of a buyer trainee are
FALSE?
A. The trainee should be informed of personal growth opportunities.
B. Orientation and training should be conducted separately during the trainee's initial
months on the job.
C. The trainee should be informed that his/her performance will be evaluated during
orientation and later on.
D. The trainee should be advised of purchasing's major staff and line activities.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT an appropriate measure of performance for a
purchasing department?
A. Average time to place requisitions.
B. Total dollars contributed to profits.
C. Total dollars purchased per supplier.
D. Total product cost reduction compared to budget.
Answer: C

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NO.11 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. You are instructed to reduce
Certkiller .cm's MRO supplier base from 50 to 1. Which of the following would be
your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Buying at the lowest total cost, consistent with quality and service.
B. Achieving a high degree of cooperation with internal customers.
C. Developing reliable alternatives of supply.
D. Optimizing inventory turnover.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Under which of the following circumstances is negative feedback appropriate?
A. Soon after the occurrence of the faulty behavior.
B. In the presence of other managerial personnel.
C. In the presence of other team members.
D. It is never appropriate.
Answer: A

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NO.13 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. One of your buyers tends to
ignore outstanding purchase orders. This has resulted in numerous complaints from
the shop floor asking the buyer to determine order status. Which of the following
would be your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Inform the buyer to set up a system for follow-up.
B. Computerize the purchasing department operations.
C. Allow shop floor personnel to make their own purchases.
D. Inform the buyer that she will be dismissed if she does not improve her performance.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is generally NOT strategic in nature?
A. New advertising schedule implementation.
B. New dividend policy direction.
C. New product development.
D. New sources of financing.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following does profit planning begin?
A. Business plans.
B. Long-range strategic plans.
C. Short-range strategic plans.
D. Strategic and operational plans.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following theories suggests that managers can attain the greatest level
of employee motivation by determining the most desirable outcomes?
A. Theory X.
B. Theory Z.
C. Expectancy theory.
D. Scientific management.
E. Motivation-Hygiene theory.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following would NOT be included in a typical audit of the purchasing
department in a manufacturing operation?
A. Inspection.
B. Organization policy.
C. Purchasing operations.
D. Inventory management.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following is NOT a good indicator of purchasing department
performance?
A. Quality rejection rates for major items.
B. Number of purchase orders issued.
C. Percentage of on-time deliveries.
D. Number of stockout situations.
Answer: B

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NO.19 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. A female employee has been
working for Certkiller .com for about 12 years and has 3 years to go until her
scheduled retirement. Recently, she was laid off from her position, and her duties
were absorbed by younger workers in the department. Under which of the following
is she MOST likely to have a claim against the company?
A. Equal Employment Opportunity Act.
B. National Labor Relations Act.
C. Age Discrimination Act.
D. Executive Order 11246.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following methods should a purchasing manager use when evaluating
individual employee performance?
A. Performance standards set by the U.S. Department of Labor.
B. The requirements of the job, including position descriptions.
C. Management By Objectives, whether or not the employee helped set the objectives.
D. Uniform company-wide standards of performance developed by the human resources
department.
Answer: B

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ISM 630-007 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: 630-007
Exam Name: ISM (C.P.M. Module 3: Value Enhancement Strategies)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 285 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. An operational lease has a non-cancelable term varying from hours to years.
B. An operational lease is a total financial commitment by the lessor.
C. In operational leases, payments are fixed payments per period.
D. Operational leases stress service.
Answer. B

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NO.2 Which of the following should generally make a "make-or-buy" decision?
A. Engineering Management.
B. Purchasing Management.
C. Production Management.
D. General Management.
Answer. D

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NO.3 Which of the following BEST describes the difference between evaluation of a
product and value analysis?
A. Value analysis is more concerned with "make-or-buy" issues.
B. Evaluation of a product is more concerned with cost issues.
C. Value analysis focuses more on economy and efficiency.
D. Value analysis is more concerned with product liability.
Answer. C

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NO.4 Which of the following favors making the part in a "make-or-buy" decision?
A. When design secrecy is required.
B. When volume requirements are small.
C. When production facilities are limited.
D. When there is a desire to maintain a multiple-source policy.
Answer. A

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT an appropriate consideration when seeking to
mitigate seasonal capacity issues?
A. Safety stock levels.
B. Transportation costs.
C. Forecasting accuracy.
D. Seasonal sales forecasts.
Answer. B

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NO.6 Which of the following are the two basic categories of costs associated with
inventories from a management point of view?
A. Supplies and services costs.
B. Storage and incremental costs.
C. Carrying costs and acquisition costs.
D. Obsolescence and deterioration costs.
Answer. C

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NO.7 You work as a purchaser at KillTest. You are negotiating a contract for which
production and delivery will be stretched out over a 24-month period. You want to
get the best price. Which of the following should you include in the contract?
A. A provision to accept all material produced under the contract.
B. A provision to cover changes in rates for material and labor.
C. A provision to eliminate penalties for late deliveries.
D. A provision to cover unforeseen production delays.
Answer. B

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NO.8 Which of the following is the FIRST step in standardization?
A. Collecting data.
B. Simplifying standards.
C. Establishing objectives.
D. Publicizing the program.
Answer. A

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NO.9 Which of the following is the MOST commonly sought-after piece of inventory
information?
A. The date the inventory is taken.
B. The current price of the items.
C. Inventory I.D. numbers.
D. Quantities.
Answer. D

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NO.10 Which of the following criteria would a project or process targeted for improvement
generally NOT meet?
A. It is in the process of change.
B. It is relevant to a key product or service issue.
C. It is within the control or influence of the team.
D. It is likely to contribute to organizational goals.
Answer. A

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NO.11 Which of the following represents the MOST common reason for a public or
nonprofit corporation to use lease/purchase agreements to obtain equipment?
A. To gain tax advantages.
B. To avoid capital expenditures.
C. To reduce maintenance needs.
D. To gain depreciation advantages.
Answer. B

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NO.12 KillTest has been experiencing numerous stockouts on a production item.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause this problem?
A. Faulty sales forecasts.
B. Incorrect order points.
C. Increased supplier prices.
D. Problems with incoming shipments.
Answer. C

ISM exam simulations   630-007   630-007 answers real questions

NO.13 Which of the following do NOT provide economic forecasts?
A. ISM Report On Business(r).
B. Bureau of Labor Statistics.
C. Department of Commerce.
D. Thomas Register.
Answer. D

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NO.14 What is generally the PRIMARY motivation for outsourcing in the health care
sector?
A. To reduce technological risk.
B. To shift patient liability.
C. To reduce labor costs.
D. To implement JIT.
Answer. C

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NO.15 Which of the following can be used to spot abnormalities in a process, as well as
compare actual measurements to customer or engineering specifications, and show
if a distribution is centered at an expected place?
A. Pareto charts.
B. Area graphs.
C. Histograms.
D. Pie graphs.
Answer. C

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NO.16 When is the timing of purchases MOST important?
A. When a market has price and supply stability.
B. When a market has price and supply instability.
C. When a market has unstable supply with predictable prices.
D. When a market has reasonably stable supply with substantial fluctuation in prices.
Answer. C

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NO.17 When would a purchasing manager generally use a third-party lease as a financing
instrument?
A. When purchasing equipment from the manufacturer with someone else's money.
B. When acquiring equipment from one party and maintenance from another.
C. When arranging an assignment agreement with a bank.
D. When transferring the asset to the internal customer.
Answer. A

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NO.18 Which of the following represents the BEST strategy for minimizing price risk in a
falling market?
A. Hedging.
B. Forward buying.
C. Hand-to-mouth buying.
D. Buying to requirements.
Answer. C

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NO.19 Which of the following should a purchaser utilize when there is a need to minimize
financial risk in a sensitive market?
A. Cash flow management.
B. Long-term relationships.
C. Market demand analysis.
D. Hedging using futures contracts.
Answer. D

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NO.20 Which of the following represents the MAIN reason why a fully documented
permanent summary record of a "make-or-buy" analysis should be maintained?
A. To respond to charges of favoritism by unsuccessful bidders.
B. To serve as a useful source of information in future situations.
C. To support cost-of-goods-sold (CGS) figures for tax purposes.
D. To justify the participation of all departments that were involved in the analysis.
Answer. C

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Exam Code: BH0-004
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB ISTQB Certificate in Software Testing)
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Total Q&A: 44 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage?
if width > length then
biggest_dimension = width
if height > width then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
else
biggest_dimension = length
if height > length then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
end_if
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Answer: C

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NO.2 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.
Answer: A

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NO.3 As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?
A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Where may functional testing be performed?
A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: BH0-009
Exam Name: ISEB (ITSM Foundation Certificate in Problem & Incident Management)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which of the following activities would initially help identify how green an organisation currently is?
A. Developing a Stakeholder Map.
B. Drafting an action register.
C. Holding a fact-finding workshop.
D. Creating a carbon accounting system.
Answer: C

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NO.2 In Decision Analysis, actions to reduce risk:
a)Take a great amount of planning.
b)Can be done quickly and simply.
c)Should only be done when the risks are high.
d)Should bring risk to an acceptable level.
A.a and b.
B.b and d.
C.c only.
D.d only.
Answer: B

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NO.3 In the Balance of Consequences, which of the consequence types should be used first to drive
behavioural change?
a)Immediate Positive.
b)Immediate Negative.
c)Delayed Positive.
d)Delayed Negative.
A.a and b.
B.c and d.
C.a only.
D.b only.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When confirming the most probable cause, you should choose methods that are
A.Easiest, quickest, cheapest, safest, surest.
B.Things that you can do right now.
C.Acceptable to everyone who will be involved.
D.Able to be done experimentally i.e.not in live.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Why are Turnaround Questions used when developing a problem specification?
A.To drill down to the most specific answer.
B.To get lots of information.
C.When you stop making progress
D.To involve more people.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following activities is NOT part of Situation Appraisal?
A.Identify concerns.
B.Set priority.
C.Identify possible causes.
D.Plan involvement.
Answer: C

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NO.7 When generating alternatives why is an expanded number of choices desirable?
A.To make sure any 'pet' alternatives are considered.
B.To increase the chances of picking a winner.
C.To ensure a complete, balanced set of alternatives.
D.To ensure the recommendation gets approved.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When looking at the Performance System, which is the correct sequence?
A.Situation, Performer, Response, Feedback, Consequences.
B.Consequences, Feedback, Situation, Performer, Response.
C.Situation, Performer, Response, Consequences, Feedback.
D.Performer, Feedback, Situation, Consequences, Response.
Answer: C

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NO.9 The purpose of the problem specification is:
a.To document a factual description of the problem.
b.To show the boundaries of the problem.
c.To help eliminate possible causes.
d.To help identify distinctions.
A.a and c.
B.a, b and c.
C.b and d.
D.All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.10 Once you have found the cause of a problem, you should use Think Beyond the Fix to prevent
recurrence.What are two ways to Think Beyond the Fix?
A.Extend the cause, extend the fix.
B.Identify likely causes, take preventive action.
C.Identify distinctions, identify changes.
D.Identify likely effects, plan contingent action.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ISEBSWTINT-001
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Software Testing Intermediate)
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Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 When creating the functional specification for the temperature control system, which of the
following review types would be most recommended to resolve any issues?
A. A walkthrough.
B. A technical review.
C. A management review.
D. A code inspection.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is an accurate depiction of the hierarchy of test management
documentation (where the highest comes first)?
A. Test policy-Test strategy-Project test plan-System test plan
B. Test strategy-Test policy-Project test plan-System test plan
C. Test policy-Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan
D. Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan-Test policy
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which one is a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A. The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to
monitor air temperatures.
B. SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C. Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D. Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following would be an entry criterion into site acceptance testing for the air
quality monitoring system?
A. That the code written to fulfil the requirement to monitor carbon dioxide levels has been 100%
path tested.
B. That the functional specification accurately reflects requirements R1 and R2.
C. That the system has been tested at levels of oxygen usage well beyond anticipated personnel
levels.
D. That the requirements for temperature control have been signed-off.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following test design techniques would be most suitable for testing that the
oxygen is released at the required times?
A. Decision Testing.
B. Statement Testing.
C. Data flow Testing.
D. Boundary Value Analysis.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CISSP-ISSMP
Exam Name: ISC (CISSP-ISSMP - Information Systems Security Management Professional)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 218 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which of the following protocols is used with a tunneling protocol to provide security?
A. FTP
B. IPX/SPX
C. IPSec
D. EAP
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is the process performed between organizations that have unique hardware or
software that cannot be maintained at a hot or warm site?
A. Cold sites arrangement
B. Business impact analysis
C. Duplicate processing facilities
D. Reciprocal agreements
Answer: D

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NO.3 You work as a Senior Marketing Manger for Umbrella Inc. You find out that some of the software
applications on the systems were malfunctioning and also you were not able to access your remote
desktop session. You suspected that some malicious attack was performed on the network of the
company. You immediately called the incident response team to handle the situation who enquired the
Network Administrator to acquire all relevant information regarding the malfunctioning. The Network
Administrator informed the incident response team that he was reviewing the security of the network
which caused all these problems. Incident response team announced that this was a controlled event not
an incident. Which of the following steps of an incident handling process was performed by the incident
response team?
A. Containment
B. Eradication
C. Preparation
D. Identification
Answer: D

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NO.4 Mark works as a security manager for SoftTech Inc. He is involved in the BIA phase to create a
document to be used to help understand what impact a disruptive event would have on the business. The
impact might be financial or operational. Which of the following are the objectives related to the above
phase in which Mark is involved? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Resource requirements identification
B. Criticality prioritization
C. Down-time estimation
D. Performing vulnerability assessment
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Which of the following fields of management focuses on establishing and maintaining consistency of a
system's or product's performance and its functional and physical attributes with its requirements, design,
and operational information throughout its life?
A. Configuration management
B. Risk management
C. Procurement management
D. Change management
Answer: A

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NO.6 You work as a Network Administrator for ABC Inc. The company uses a secure wireless network. John
complains to you that his computer is not working properly. What type of security audit do you need to
conduct to resolve the problem?
A. Operational audit
B. Dependent audit
C. Non-operational audit
D. Independent audit
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following penetration testing phases involves reconnaissance or data gathering?
A. Attack phase
B. Pre-attack phase
C. Post-attack phase
D. Out-attack phase
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific
variances to assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of affairs?
A. Business continuity plan
B. Disaster recovery plan
C. Continuity of Operations Plan
D. Contingency plan
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following types of activities can be audited for security? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose three.
A. Data downloading from the Internet
B. File and object access
C. Network logons and logoffs
D. Printer access
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT a valid maturity level of the Software Capability Maturity Model (CMM)?
A. Managed level
B. Defined level
C. Fundamental level
D. Repeatable level
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following security models dictates that subjects can only access objects through
applications?
A. Biba-Clark model
B. Bell-LaPadula
C. Clark-Wilson
D. Biba model
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is the best method to stop vulnerability attacks on a Web server?
A. Using strong passwords
B. Configuring a firewall
C. Implementing the latest virus scanner
D. Installing service packs and updates
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following relies on a physical characteristic of the user to verify his identity?
A. Social Engineering
B. Kerberos v5
C. Biometrics
D. CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following BCP teams is the first responder and deals with the immediate effects of the
disaster?
A. Emergency-management team
B. Damage-assessment team
C. Off-site storage team
D. Emergency action team
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following are the ways of sending secure e-mail messages over the Internet.? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)
A. TLS
B. PGP
C. S/MIME
D. IPSec
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 Joseph works as a Software Developer for Web Tech Inc. He wants to protect the algorithms and the
techniques of programming that he uses in developing an application. Which of the following laws are
used to protect a part of software?
A. Code Security law
B. Trademark laws
C. Copyright laws
D. Patent laws
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a
particular message?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Confidentiality
C. Authentication
D. Integrity
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following subphases are defined in the maintenance phase of the life cycle models?
A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Request control
D. Release control
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.19 Which of the following involves changing data prior to or during input to a computer in an effort to
commit fraud?
A. Data diddling
B. Wiretapping
C. Eavesdropping
D. Spoofing
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following characteristics are described by the DIAP Information Readiness Assessment
function? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It performs vulnerability/threat analysis assessment.
B. It identifies and generates IA requirements.
C. It provides data needed to accurately assess IA readiness.
D. It provides for entry and storage of individual system data.
Answer: A,B,C

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