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Exam Code: BH0-004
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB ISTQB Certificate in Software Testing)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 44 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage?
if width > length then
biggest_dimension = width
if height > width then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
else
biggest_dimension = length
if height > length then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
end_if
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Answer: C

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NO.2 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.
Answer: A

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NO.3 As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?
A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Where may functional testing be performed?
A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: BH0-009
Exam Name: ISEB (ITSM Foundation Certificate in Problem & Incident Management)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which of the following activities would initially help identify how green an organisation currently is?
A. Developing a Stakeholder Map.
B. Drafting an action register.
C. Holding a fact-finding workshop.
D. Creating a carbon accounting system.
Answer: C

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NO.2 In Decision Analysis, actions to reduce risk:
a)Take a great amount of planning.
b)Can be done quickly and simply.
c)Should only be done when the risks are high.
d)Should bring risk to an acceptable level.
A.a and b.
B.b and d.
C.c only.
D.d only.
Answer: B

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NO.3 In the Balance of Consequences, which of the consequence types should be used first to drive
behavioural change?
a)Immediate Positive.
b)Immediate Negative.
c)Delayed Positive.
d)Delayed Negative.
A.a and b.
B.c and d.
C.a only.
D.b only.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When confirming the most probable cause, you should choose methods that are
A.Easiest, quickest, cheapest, safest, surest.
B.Things that you can do right now.
C.Acceptable to everyone who will be involved.
D.Able to be done experimentally i.e.not in live.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Why are Turnaround Questions used when developing a problem specification?
A.To drill down to the most specific answer.
B.To get lots of information.
C.When you stop making progress
D.To involve more people.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following activities is NOT part of Situation Appraisal?
A.Identify concerns.
B.Set priority.
C.Identify possible causes.
D.Plan involvement.
Answer: C

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NO.7 When generating alternatives why is an expanded number of choices desirable?
A.To make sure any 'pet' alternatives are considered.
B.To increase the chances of picking a winner.
C.To ensure a complete, balanced set of alternatives.
D.To ensure the recommendation gets approved.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When looking at the Performance System, which is the correct sequence?
A.Situation, Performer, Response, Feedback, Consequences.
B.Consequences, Feedback, Situation, Performer, Response.
C.Situation, Performer, Response, Consequences, Feedback.
D.Performer, Feedback, Situation, Consequences, Response.
Answer: C

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NO.9 The purpose of the problem specification is:
a.To document a factual description of the problem.
b.To show the boundaries of the problem.
c.To help eliminate possible causes.
d.To help identify distinctions.
A.a and c.
B.a, b and c.
C.b and d.
D.All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.10 Once you have found the cause of a problem, you should use Think Beyond the Fix to prevent
recurrence.What are two ways to Think Beyond the Fix?
A.Extend the cause, extend the fix.
B.Identify likely causes, take preventive action.
C.Identify distinctions, identify changes.
D.Identify likely effects, plan contingent action.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ISEBSWTINT-001
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Software Testing Intermediate)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 When creating the functional specification for the temperature control system, which of the
following review types would be most recommended to resolve any issues?
A. A walkthrough.
B. A technical review.
C. A management review.
D. A code inspection.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is an accurate depiction of the hierarchy of test management
documentation (where the highest comes first)?
A. Test policy-Test strategy-Project test plan-System test plan
B. Test strategy-Test policy-Project test plan-System test plan
C. Test policy-Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan
D. Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan-Test policy
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which one is a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A. The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to
monitor air temperatures.
B. SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C. Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D. Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following would be an entry criterion into site acceptance testing for the air
quality monitoring system?
A. That the code written to fulfil the requirement to monitor carbon dioxide levels has been 100%
path tested.
B. That the functional specification accurately reflects requirements R1 and R2.
C. That the system has been tested at levels of oxygen usage well beyond anticipated personnel
levels.
D. That the requirements for temperature control have been signed-off.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following test design techniques would be most suitable for testing that the
oxygen is released at the required times?
A. Decision Testing.
B. Statement Testing.
C. Data flow Testing.
D. Boundary Value Analysis.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: BH0-005
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Certificate in Software Asset Management Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-03

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NO.1 Which of the following BEST describes the objective of the Core Asset Management processes?
A.To maintain information about software assets throughout their lifecycle and to manage the physical
assets related to software
B.To manage all software assets and their licenses.
C.To manage all software and hardware assets
D.To identify and maintain information about all software assets throughout their lifecycle.
Answer:A

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NO.2 For reporting purposes which of the following would you NOT expect to be used to derive SAM reports?
A.DSL
B.CMDB
C.OLA.
D.KEDB.
Answer:C

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NO.3 Which of these elements is part of the preparation stage of implementation?
A.Identifying and assessing software risks and creating a risk register
B.Occasionally completing surprise or ad hoc reviews and audits
C.Highlighting any problems and raising the profile of continued non-conformance
D.Continuously emphasise the importance of the SAM process to all ICT and business personnel.
Answer:A

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NO.4 What method of metering would be BEST suited to a concurrent license based application?
A.Active
B.Selective
C.Non-selective.
D.Passive.
Answer:A

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NO.5 There is a need to reduce the number of SAM reports produced. Which of the following is the LEAST
necessary?
A.The number of software related calls to the Service Desk
B.The cost of a site licence for existing software
C.The number of deployed licenses for each item of software
D.The number of new software licenses required.
Answer:A

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Exam Code: ISEB-BA1
Exam Name: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Business Analysis)
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Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-03

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NO.1 What is the first stage of the waterfall systems development lifecycle?
A. Plan.
B. Analysis.
C. Feasibility Study.
D. Strategic Vision.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which stage in the waterfall model is considered as several separate stages in the V model?
A. Development.
B. Analysis.
C. Testing.
D. Design.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statement is TRUE about the process view of an organisation?
A. It focuses on the customer of the organisation.
B. It focuses solely on the internal view of the organisation.
C. It focuses on the functions of an organisation.
D. It focuses on the organisational structure.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Given the cashflows below, which of the following is correct?
A. The project pays back in year 4 of the project.
B. The project does not pay back within the four year period.
C. The project pays back in year 2 of the project.
D. The project pays back in year 3 of the project.
Answer: B

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NO.5 When should benefits realisation be carried out?
A. Immediately at the end of the project.
B. At the beginning of the project.
C. At the end of the finalised feasibility study.
D. Months or years after the end of the project.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What does the O' stand for in the CATVVOE analysis?
A. The objectives of the business system under review.
B. The opportunities for change in the business system under review.
C. The organisation of the business system under review.
D. The owner of the business system under review.
Answer: D

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NO.7 On a class diagram, what do the multiplicities represent?
A. The number of attributes held within each class.
B. The minimum and maximum number of operations in each class.
C. The minimum and maximum number of objects in each class.
D. The business rules for an association between two classes.
Answer: D

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NO.8 As part of an investigation a Business Analyst has devised a form for users of an existing system to use
to keep track of the tasks they undertake during their working day. Which of the following describes this
investigation technique?
A. Special purpose records,
B. Scenario analysis.
C. Questionnaires.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: A

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NO.9 During which stage of the Business Analysis Process Model would a gap analysis be carried out?
A. Define requirements.
B. Analyse needs.
C. Evaluate the options.
D. Investigate situation.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A stakeholder has been classified as 'some' on both the power/influence and interest axes of a
power/interest grid. Which of the following would be an appropriate way of managing this
stakeholder?
A. Keep on side.
B. Keep watching.
C. Keep informed.
D. Keep satisfied.
Answer: A

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NO.11 In a particular organisation it is common practice to call all managers by their first name. It is part of the
culture of the organisation. Newcomers are quickly corrected if they do not follow this informal approach.
What would knowing about this convention be classified as in Requirements Engineering?
A. Explicit individual knowledge.
B. Tacit individual knowledge.
C. Explicit corporate knowledge.
D. Tacit corporate knowledge.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Business rules define how actions are to be performed. Under which of the following headings are
business rules considered?
A. Explicit or implicit management statements,
B. Statutory and internal policies.
C. Constraints and operational guidance.
D. Negotiable and non-negotiable limitations.
Answer: C

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NO.13 The required competencies of a business analyst are classified into three categories.
Which of the following is one of these three categories.?
A. Management Qualities.
B. Business Knowledge.
C. IT Skills
D. Project Skills.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Different reactions may be observed when a change to working methods is proposed. These reactions
include:
a. Enthusiasm for the change.
b. Fear of the change.
c. Reduced performance on the job.
d. Reluctant acceptance of the change.
Which of the following represents the typical sequence of these four reactions?
A. b, d, c and a.
B. a, b, c and d.
C. b, c, d and a.
D. a, b, d and c.
Answer: C

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NO.15 It has been suggested that five clerical posts can be abolished when a new computer system is
implemented. Under which category of costs or benefits will this be recorded?
A. Tangible costs.
B. Tangible benefits.
C. Intangible costs.
D. Intangible benefits.
Answer: B

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NO.16 In which of the following business analysis areas does the traditional systems analyst role primarily
operate?
A. Quantifying costs and benefits.
B. Defining the needs of the business.
C. Implementing business changes.
D. Specifying IT system requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.17 A well formed requirement is said to comply with which of the following acronyms?
A. MOSCOW.
B. SMART.
C. OSCAR.
D. MOST.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following terms may be used to describe the attitude of a stakeholder who is NOT in favour
of the project but is probably not actively opposed to it?
A. Opponent.
B. Neutral.
C. Critic.
D. Blocker.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following investigation techniques involves following a user for one or two days in order to
find out what a particular job entails?
A. Scenario analysis.
B. Protocol analysis.
C. Shadowing.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: C

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NO.20 A batch program runs every night to raise invoices. The next day these invoices are posted out to
customers by a clerk. Customers pay the invoices with cheques. The cheques are then banked by a clerk.
In this scenario, which of the following represents a business event?
A. System prints invoices.
B. Clerk sends invoices to customers.
C. Customer's cheque is received.
D. Clerk banks the cheque.
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster
than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
Answer: B

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NO.2 What should a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
A. Service design
B. Service transition
C. Continual service improvement
D. Service operation
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?
A. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is accurate
B. Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained
C. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is consistent with information in the service
portfolio
D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the service catalogue
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?
A. The part of a contract that specifies the responsibilities of each party
B. An agreement between the service provider and an internal organization
C. An agreement between a service provider and an external supplier
D. An agreement between the service provider and their customer
Answer: D

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NO.7 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service
be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which one of the following activities are carried out during the "Where do we want to be?"
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A. Implementing service and process improvements
B. Reviewing measurements and metrics
C. Creating a baseline
D. Defining measurable targets
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the
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A. To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified
during design
B. To design and develop capabilities for service management
C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
D. To plan the resources required to manage a release
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?
1.Design of the service metrics
2.Business continuity strategy
3.Business impact analysis (BIA)
4.Risk assessment
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C

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Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Certificate in Software Asset Management Essentials)
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Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following BEST describes the objective of the Core Asset Management processes?
A.To maintain information about software assets throughout their lifecycle and to manage the physical
assets related to software
B.To manage all software assets and their licenses.
C.To manage all software and hardware assets
D.To identify and maintain information about all software assets throughout their lifecycle.
Answer:A

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NO.2 There is a need to reduce the number of SAM reports produced. Which of the following is the LEAST
necessary?
A.The number of software related calls to the Service Desk
B.The cost of a site licence for existing software
C.The number of deployed licenses for each item of software
D.The number of new software licenses required.
Answer:A

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NO.3 What method of metering would be BEST suited to a concurrent license based application?
A.Active
B.Selective
C.Non-selective.
D.Passive.
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which of these elements is part of the preparation stage of implementation?
A.Identifying and assessing software risks and creating a risk register
B.Occasionally completing surprise or ad hoc reviews and audits
C.Highlighting any problems and raising the profile of continued non-conformance
D.Continuously emphasise the importance of the SAM process to all ICT and business personnel.
Answer:A

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NO.5 For reporting purposes which of the following would you NOT expect to be used to derive SAM reports?
A.DSL
B.CMDB
C.OLA.
D.KEDB.
Answer:C

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NO.1 In a particular organisation it is common practice to call all managers by their first name. It is part of the
culture of the organisation. Newcomers are quickly corrected if they do not follow this informal approach.
What would knowing about this convention be classified as in Requirements Engineering?
A. Explicit individual knowledge.
B. Tacit individual knowledge.
C. Explicit corporate knowledge.
D. Tacit corporate knowledge.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statement is TRUE about the process view of an organisation?
A. It focuses on the customer of the organisation.
B. It focuses solely on the internal view of the organisation.
C. It focuses on the functions of an organisation.
D. It focuses on the organisational structure.
Answer: A

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NO.3 When should benefits realisation be carried out?
A. Immediately at the end of the project.
B. At the beginning of the project.
C. At the end of the finalised feasibility study.
D. Months or years after the end of the project.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A stakeholder has been classified as 'some' on both the power/influence and interest axes of a
power/interest grid. Which of the following would be an appropriate way of managing this
stakeholder?
A. Keep on side.
B. Keep watching.
C. Keep informed.
D. Keep satisfied.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following investigation techniques involves following a user for one or two days in order to
find out what a particular job entails?
A. Scenario analysis.
B. Protocol analysis.
C. Shadowing.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Different reactions may be observed when a change to working methods is proposed. These reactions
include:
a. Enthusiasm for the change.
b. Fear of the change.
c. Reduced performance on the job.
d. Reluctant acceptance of the change.
Which of the following represents the typical sequence of these four reactions?
A. b, d, c and a.
B. a, b, c and d.
C. b, c, d and a.
D. a, b, d and c.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A well formed requirement is said to comply with which of the following acronyms?
A. MOSCOW.
B. SMART.
C. OSCAR.
D. MOST.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A batch program runs every night to raise invoices. The next day these invoices are posted out to
customers by a clerk. Customers pay the invoices with cheques. The cheques are then banked by a clerk.
In this scenario, which of the following represents a business event?
A. System prints invoices.
B. Clerk sends invoices to customers.
C. Customer's cheque is received.
D. Clerk banks the cheque.
Answer: C

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NO.9 In which of the following business analysis areas does the traditional systems analyst role primarily
operate?
A. Quantifying costs and benefits.
B. Defining the needs of the business.
C. Implementing business changes.
D. Specifying IT system requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following terms may be used to describe the attitude of a stakeholder who is NOT in favour
of the project but is probably not actively opposed to it?
A. Opponent.
B. Neutral.
C. Critic.
D. Blocker.
Answer: C

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NO.11 It has been suggested that five clerical posts can be abolished when a new computer system is
implemented. Under which category of costs or benefits will this be recorded?
A. Tangible costs.
B. Tangible benefits.
C. Intangible costs.
D. Intangible benefits.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Given the cashflows below, which of the following is correct?
A. The project pays back in year 4 of the project.
B. The project does not pay back within the four year period.
C. The project pays back in year 2 of the project.
D. The project pays back in year 3 of the project.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Business rules define how actions are to be performed. Under which of the following headings are
business rules considered?
A. Explicit or implicit management statements,
B. Statutory and internal policies.
C. Constraints and operational guidance.
D. Negotiable and non-negotiable limitations.
Answer: C

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NO.14 As part of an investigation a Business Analyst has devised a form for users of an existing system to use
to keep track of the tasks they undertake during their working day. Which of the following describes this
investigation technique?
A. Special purpose records,
B. Scenario analysis.
C. Questionnaires.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which stage in the waterfall model is considered as several separate stages in the V model?
A. Development.
B. Analysis.
C. Testing.
D. Design.
Answer: C

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NO.16 The required competencies of a business analyst are classified into three categories.
Which of the following is one of these three categories.?
A. Management Qualities.
B. Business Knowledge.
C. IT Skills
D. Project Skills.
Answer: B

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NO.17 During which stage of the Business Analysis Process Model would a gap analysis be carried out?
A. Define requirements.
B. Analyse needs.
C. Evaluate the options.
D. Investigate situation.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the first stage of the waterfall systems development lifecycle?
A. Plan.
B. Analysis.
C. Feasibility Study.
D. Strategic Vision.
Answer: C

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NO.19 On a class diagram, what do the multiplicities represent?
A. The number of attributes held within each class.
B. The minimum and maximum number of operations in each class.
C. The minimum and maximum number of objects in each class.
D. The business rules for an association between two classes.
Answer: D

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NO.20 What does the O' stand for in the CATVVOE analysis?
A. The objectives of the business system under review.
B. The opportunities for change in the business system under review.
C. The organisation of the business system under review.
D. The owner of the business system under review.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: BH0-011
Exam Name: ISEB (BCS Intermediate certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Why has the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres been developed?
a. Because data centres are using an increasing amount of power and they need to maximise their
efficiency to reduce their impact on the power infrastructure.
b. Because the power consumption of data centres across Europe as a whole needs to fall to meet
agreed C02 targets.
c. Because many data centres have outdated designs which focus on perceived reliability at the expense
of cost and energy efficiency.
d. Because the energy consumption of data centres has become a significant business cost.
e. Because the United States (US) has taken a significant lead in energy conservation and EU-based data
centres need a code of conduct to compete in a global marketplace.
A. a, b, c and d
B. a, c and d
C. b and e
D. e only
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following BEST define the aims of the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres.?
a. To determine and accelerate the application of energy efficient technologies.
b. Develop practical voluntary commitments which when implemented improve the energy efficiency of
data centres and in so doing minimise the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
c. To develop and promote a set of easily understood metrics to measure the current efficiencies and
subsequent improvement.
d. To encourage the closure of data centres that are less energy efficient.
e. To ensure that the EU is visibly taking a lead in this important area of energy conservation.
A. a, b, c and d
B. d and e
C. a, b and c
D. e only
Answer: C

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NO.3 The numerical value associated with each Best Practice is shown for the following reason:
A. To allow operators to add up their total score in order that they can be compared with their competitors.
B. To allow the Code of Conduct administrators to properly assess each application.
C. To provide an independent scorecard for data centre owners.
D. To indicate the level of benefit from carrying out a Best Practice.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A facility's 'IT load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the
following?
a. The Power Distribution Units feeding the racks
b. Servers
c. Firewalls
d. Switches
e. Tape libraries
A. b, c. d and e
B. a, d and e
C. b and c
D. b. c and d
Answer: A

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NO.5 'Facility load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the following?
a. The UPS.
b. Lighting.
c. Air-conditioning units.
d. Monitors housed in racks.
e. Tape libraries
A. a, b, and c
B. a and d
C. b and c
D. d, and e
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ISEBSWTINT-001
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Software Testing Intermediate)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which one is a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A. The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to
monitor air temperatures.
B. SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C. Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D. Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following would be an entry criterion into site acceptance testing for the air
quality monitoring system?
A. That the code written to fulfil the requirement to monitor carbon dioxide levels has been 100%
path tested.
B. That the functional specification accurately reflects requirements R1 and R2.
C. That the system has been tested at levels of oxygen usage well beyond anticipated personnel
levels.
D. That the requirements for temperature control have been signed-off.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following test design techniques would be most suitable for testing that the
oxygen is released at the required times?
A. Decision Testing.
B. Statement Testing.
C. Data flow Testing.
D. Boundary Value Analysis.
Answer: D

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NO.4 When creating the functional specification for the temperature control system, which of the
following review types would be most recommended to resolve any issues?
A. A walkthrough.
B. A technical review.
C. A management review.
D. A code inspection.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is an accurate depiction of the hierarchy of test management
documentation (where the highest comes first)?
A. Test policy-Test strategy-Project test plan-System test plan
B. Test strategy-Test policy-Project test plan-System test plan
C. Test policy-Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan
D. Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan-Test policy
Answer: A

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Exam Code: BH0-001
Exam Name: ISEB (IT Service Management Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-20

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NO.1 Who must always authorise a Request for Change before the change is built and
tested?
A. The Configuration Manager
B. The Change Initiator
C. The Change Manager
D. Release Management
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management
process?
A. The physical aspects of software control
B. Ensuring that the accuracy of CMDB entries concerning software CIs is maintained
C. Helping to determine the software release policy
D. Distributing software
Answer: B

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NO.3 Possible problems with Change Management include:
A. Greater ability to absorb a large volume of change
B. Increased visibility and communication of changes
C. Lack of ownership of impacted services
D. Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs
Answer: C

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NO.4 With which of the following processes is Problem Management least likely to
interface on a regular basis?
A. IT Financial Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

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NO.5 A service-based (rather than a customer-based) SLA:
A. Covers all services for a particular customer
B. Covers a set of similar services, for a single customer
C. Covers all services
D. Covers a single service, for all of the customers of that service
Answer: D

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NO.6 Establishing a back-out plan
A. All of them
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
Answer: C

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4.Why is Service Management so important to IT service providers?
A. The success of many businesses depends upon the quality of their IT
B. It's the only way to manage IT in the Internet age
C. It's contained within the IT Infrastructure Library
D. It's the first non-proprietary initiative for the management of IT systems
Answer: A

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NO.7 Why is there sometimes conflict between the goals of Incident Management and
those of Problem Management?
A. Because specialist support staff do not properly document the work-arounds they
identify which consequently prevents the 1st line support staff from applying them the
next time the incident occurs
B. Because Problem Management is often carried out by technical staff who also have
operations responsibilities and who cannot allocate enough resources to problem solving
C. Because Problem Management is focusing on identifying permanent solutions and
therefore the speed with which these solutions are found is of secondary importance
D. Because Problem Management staff rarely give feedback spontaneously, forcing the
1st line support staff to chase them
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following places Problem Management activities in the correct order:
A. Identify and record, classify, investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, review the
change
B. Investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, classify, identify and record
C. Identify and record, investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, classify, review the
change
D. Review a change, classify, identify and record, investigate and diagnose, raise another
RFC
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of these is/are TRUE?
1. Functional escalation is an essential part of the Incident Management process
2. All calls to the Service Desk should be treated as incidents
3. Service Requests can be handled by Service Desk Staff
A. 1 and 3
B. All three of them
C. Only 1
D. 1 and 2
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following activities may, exceptionally, be omitted for an urgent
change:
1. Recording that the change has been made
2. Testing the change
3. Holding a CAB meeting

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