2013年11月2日星期六

The Best IBM 000-012 Exam Training materials

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Exam Code: 000-012
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Usage and Accounting Manager V7.1 Implementation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 Which core software for the Web Reporting Server is required to be installed?
A.SQL
B.WebSphere
C.Integrated Solutions Console
D.Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: D

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NO.2 Using the IBM Tivoli Usage and Accounting Manager V7.1 Integrated Solutions Console, where are the
rate tables assigned to the clients in the Client table?
A.Chargeback Maintenance Rates
B.Chargeback Maintenance Clients
C.System Maintenance Users Groups
D.Chargeback Maintenance Rate Groups
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two processing files should be reviewed for database size estimation? (Choose two.)
A.job log file
B.AcctCSR.txt
C.yyyymmdd.txt
D.Exceptions.txt
E.CurrentCSR.txt
Answer: AB

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NO.4 Using the database collector input, what happens to the selected data during Integrator input
processing?
A.Identifiers and resources are validated.
B.The select output is written into a CSR file.
C.Data fields are mapped to identifiers or resources.
D.Resources with the same identifiers are aggregated.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which IBM Tivoli Usage and Accounting Manager V7.1 panel is selected to set the Trace Message and
Log Message level?
A.Troubleshooting Transactions Logging
B.Troubleshooting Configuration Logging
C.System Maintenance Transactions Logging
D.System Maintenance Configuration Logging
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of bytes an account code can contain?
A.8
B.96
C.127
D.unlimited
Answer: C

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NO.7 When identifying data sources and corresponding collectors, which collector does a CSV data source
require?
A.WinDisk
B.WinProcess
C.StandardCollector
D.UniversalCollector
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the purpose of CPU normalization within IBM Tivoli Usage and Accounting Manager V7.1?
A.to not charge for CPU utilization
B.to charge less for CPU utilization
C.to charge more for CPU utilization
D.to charge evenly for CPU utilization
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
In the Log Files panel displayed in this exhibit, the UnixDB2 process ended with a process failure.
In which step did the failure occur?
A.UnixOS
B.Process
C.Integrator
D.UnixNightly
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the benefit of CSR+ Output as an Integrator output stage?
A.More detailed data is written to the CSR files.
B.Additional aggregation is done for the CSR file.
C.The order of files is optimized for the next step.
D.Index data is added in the header of the CSR record.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M25
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational Team Concert Technical Sales Mastery Test)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 What describes the overall objective of Rational Team Concert?
A.It is a team collaboration solution that seamlessly integrates common application lifecycle services.
B.It allows a development team to find and re-use development assets.
C.It provides an open-source Integrated Development Environment.
D.It provides a UML-based visual modeling and design tool.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which feature of Rational Team Concert (RTC) makes it more valuable to a Team Lead than competing
products?
A.Customizable dashboards provide a real-time view of project status.
B.RTC provides check-out/edit/check-in functionality.
C.Branching and merging is supported across multiple versions.
D.RTC provides advanced diff/change/delta analysis to find differences between versions.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which capabilities of Rational Team Concert allow for the transparent collaboration of teams across
geographically distributed locations?
A.Team reports/web dashboards and a WAN-enabled repository facilitate remote collaboration.
B.Video conferencing and VOIP support allows ad-hoc meetings with team members at any location.
C.Multilingual and translation support 17 common languages and dialects.
D.Fully integrated FTP and rcp (remote copy) support allows team members to copy files to/from any
location.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Rational Team Concert client license type entitles full access to all capabilities?
A.Contributor
B.Developer
C.Designer
D.Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which aspect of the Software Delivery Lifecycle is a key capability of Rational Team Concert?
A.Business Modeling
B.Iteration Planning
C.Prototyping
D.Component Assembly
Answer: B

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Exam Code: COG-310
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos TM1 Developer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 When an application developer constructs a cube, what is the minimum number of dimensions the cube
must contain?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.2 When users cannot access a TM1 application, the application developer should ensure the host
process is correct. Which of the following is the host process?
A. TM1 data server
B. TM1 admin server
C. TM1 web server
D. TM1 local server
Answer: B

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NO.3 An application developer needs to know the last time the Sales Forecast cube was updated. The cube
file, including the date and time stamp, can be found in which of the following locations?
A. In the data directory.
B. In the data file.
C. On the web server.
D. On the admin server.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Data is loaded into cells in a cube. A cell is identified by the intersection of items from which of the
following objects?
A. Attribute
B. Subset
C. Dimension
D. Slice
Answer: C

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NO.5 Aggregation is automatically applied when building a dimension. Which of the following option is the
basis for aggregation?
A. Formats
B. Rules
C. Attributes
D. Hierarchies
Answer: D

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2013年11月1日星期五

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Exam Code: 156-715-70
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Endpoint Expert R70 (Combined SA, FDE, MI, ME))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 374 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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Exam Code: 156-315.75
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Security Expert R75)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 629 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40,
and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is
HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 100%
D. 50%
Answer: D

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NO.2 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What
command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unloadlocal
Answer: A

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NO.4 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not
encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

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NO.5 David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool
would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

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NO.7 If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum
number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Answer: D

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NO.8 The process ________________ compiles $FWDIR/conf/*.W files into machine language.
A. fw gen
B. cpd
C. fwd
D. fwm
Answer: A

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NO.9 How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctl get kernel
B. fw ctl pstat
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k
Answer: B

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NO.10 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing - Unicast
B. Load Balancing - Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 270-131
Exam Name: CA (Certified Unicenter Specialist Administrator )
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Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 When installing Microsoft SQL Server in a Unicenter NSM environment, what
network protocol must be installed for a routed environment?
A. Banyan VINES
B. Named Pipe only
C. NWLink IPX/SPX
D. TCP/IP Sockets
Answer: D

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NO.2 All message records and message actions are stored in the Event Management
database. When you add, modify, or delete message records and message actions,
you are not changing active policy; you are simply updating the database. What is
the default logical name for this database?
A. caioprdb
B. caioprlog
C. caoprdmn process
D. opreload
Answer: A

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NO.3 To access a remote enterprise manager through the Unicenter explorer the user
must specify what type of Userid?
A. The MS SQL server system administrator userid, 'sa'
B. The COR userid and password
C. An operating system userid that allows login to the remote system.
D. The caunint userid.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What Unicenter NSM Classic tool is used to customize Classes in the COR?
A. Nodeview
B. Class Wizard
C. DSM Wizard
D. Object View
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which Left Pane option is used to create a new Calendar inside the Unicenter
Explorer?
A. Topology
B. Tools
C. Properties
D. Enterprise Management
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are the three conceptual layers within Unicenter NSM? (Choose three.)
A. Agent Technology Layer
B. Application Management Layer
C. Manager Layer
D. Internet Control Layer
E. Network Management Layer
F. WorldView Layer
Answer: ACF

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NO.7 The Unicenter 2D and 3D Maps visually represent system, database, and application
resources. They are in which component of the WorldView Layer?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Real World Interface
C. WorldView Application Programming Interface
D. WorldView Gateway
Answer: B

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NO.8 CCI provides communication between which Unicenter NSM components?
A. Agent Technologies Components
B. Enterprise Management Components
C. Unicenter Agents
D. WorldView Gateway and the Common Object Repository
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following are valid Station types? (Choose three.)
A. CPU
B. CPUTNG
C. POSTCPU
D. PRECPU
Answer: ACD

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NO.10 What is the default Calendar provided by Unicenter NSM?
A. Standard
B. Default
C. MAIN
D. BASE
Answer: D

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NO.11 When creating a new Calendar within the Unicenter Explorer, what is the default
Time increment?
A. 5 Minutes
B. 15 Minutes
C. 10 Minutes
D. 12 Minutes
Answer: B

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NO.12 Workload Management can submit jobs to:
A. Servers that have Workload Agent installed
B. Servers that have Workload Agent installed and are defined as Stations by the
Workload Manager
C. Any Unicenter Server
D. Servers that have Workload Server installed and are defined as Stations by the
Workload Agent
Answer: B

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NO.13 What field in the Message Record contains the pattern that is matched against the
Event Console Messages?
A. Description Field
B. Message ID
C. Sequence Number
D. Token Number
Answer: B

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NO.14 Communication between the SNMP Administrator and Agents is routed through
which component?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Distributed Services Bus
C. Distributed State Machine
D. Finite State Machine
Answer: B

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NO.15 What component is selected to install the Report Builder and Report
Administrator?
A. Unicenter Explorer
B. Performance Management
C. Unicenter Reports
D. Software Development Kit
Answer: C

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NO.16 SNMP relies on which transport from the TCP/IP protocol suite?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answer: D

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NO.17 What must be installed before WorldView that includes a local repository?
A. Agent components
B. DSM components
C. Microsoft SQL Client
D. Microsoft SQL Server
Answer: D

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NO.18 What are the Message Records and Action policies referred to after they are loaded
into physical memory?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Decision Support Binary
C. Distributed Services Bus
D. Event Console
Answer: B

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NO.19 The opreload process reads the policy stored in the Event Management database
and creates two copies of the Decision Support Binary. One is placed in memory and
the other is stored on the disk. What is the default name of the DSB copy stored on
the disk?
A. caioprdb
B. caopr.dsb
C. caoprdmn process
D. caoprlog process
Answer: B

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NO.20 What command directs Event Management to refresh the active Message Record
and Message Action lists immediately with the definitions stored in the Event
Management database?
A. cawto
B. clean_sadmin
C. opreload
D. resetdsm
Answer: C

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NO.1 In a Distributed SpectroSERVER (D5S) environment, if you create an event condition rule, which file is
updated on the SpectroSERVERS?
A. PCause
B. AlertMap
C. EVformat
D. EventDisp
Answer: D

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NO.2 To add a column to an existing table, you need to:
A. Override the default XML file in the custom area using a new unique name.
B. Edit the default XML file in the default area and reference the new XML file in the custom area.
C. Create a new table XML file in the custom area with the same name as the default XML file and
reference the default XML file.
D. Create a new table XML file in the custom area with the same name as the default XML file and do not
reference the default XML file.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The EventDisp file defines event processing. Which statements about event processing are TRUE?
(Choose three)
A. An event can run a script.
B. An event can clear an alarm.
C. An event can participate in an Event Rule
D. An event can be logged to the DDM database.
E. Events can be correlated among different models.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 Use an Event Rate rule when you want:
A. No alarms for subsequent events of that event type.
B. Notification of a series of events occurring in a specific sequence.
C. Notification of the absence of an expected second event after an initial event.
D. Notification that there is a problem when a stream of the same events occurs at a set rate within a
specified time frame.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When you need to customize an existing subview:
A. Edit the default XML file in the default location.
B. Create a file in the custom directory structure with the same file name as the default XML file.
C. Create a file in the custom directory structure with a different file name from the default XML file.
D. Create a file in the custom directory structure with a different file name from the default XML file but
reference the default XML file.
Answer: B

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