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Exam Code: 156-815
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert NGX)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-16

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NO.1 When installing the Primary MDS, what information must you have?
A. Type of MDS and IP address of Secondary MDS
B. Type of MDS and IP address range for virtual IP addresses
C. Type of MDS and name of leading virtual IP interface
D. Type of MDS and one-time password
E. Type of MDS and number of CMAs to be configured
Answer: C

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NO.2 A Managed Service Provider (MSP) is using Provider-1 to manage their customer's security policies.
What is the recommended method of securing the Provider-1 system in a NOC environment?
A. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator and the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
B. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator.
C. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
D. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator.
E. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How many Multi Domain GUIs (MDG) can connect a Multi Domain Server (MDS) at a time?
A. 250
B. 5
C. unlimited
D. 500
E. 1
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following actions occurs after the configuration of a CLM on an MDS MLM for a specific
Customer?
A. The CLM object appears in the MDG. The Administrator needs to launch a SmartDashboard for that
CLM, and configure it to retrieve the logs from the CMA's Gateway.
B. A default CLM object is created in the CMA Security Policy and is added to the list of log servers for
each configured
Security Gateway.
C. No changes appear in the CMA Security Policy, but none are required. Once the CLM of a specific
Customer is created, all logs are sent to that CLM by default. This is after the Policy is installed on the
Gateway and the master's file is edited by the system.
D. The system creates a default CLM object in the CMA Security Policy. The Administrator must then log
in to the CMA and configure the Gateway to send all logs to the CLM, by including the CLM object in its
list of log servers.
E. The system performs no default configuration tasks. The Administrator must log into the CMA, create
the CLM object,and add it to the Gateway's list of log servers.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Identify the following Provider-1 configuration:
A. NOC
B. ISP
C. Standard
D. Point-of-presence
E. MSP
Answer: D

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NO.6 How many CLMs can each MDS MLM hold?
A. 225
B. unlimited
C. 50
D. 500
E. 250
Answer: E

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NO.7 How many CMAs can each MDS manage?
A. Unlimited
B. 50
C. 500
D. 250
E. 200
Answer: C

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NO.8 The MDS will initiate status collection from the CMAs when which of the following occurs?
A. MDS-level High Availability is configured.
B. CMA-level High Availability is configured.
C. CMAs have established SIC with remote Security Gateways.
D. Get Node Data action is requested for a specific object displayed in the SmartUpdate View.
E. The MDG connects to the MDS Manager.
Answer: E

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NO.9 Does the Multi Domain Server (MDS) maintain multiple customer data bases, with each customer
data base relating to a single CMA?
A. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) does not maintain customer databases or CMAs.
B. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain multiple customer databases with each customer
database relating to multiple CMAs.
C. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain multiple customer databases managing one CMA per
customer database.
D. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain a single customer database able to relate to one CMA.
E. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) maintains one customer database able to relate to multiple CMAs.
Answer: C

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NO.10 When configuring an MDS MLM from the MDG, which of the following are required?
A. MDS IP address and MDS type
B. MDS Name and CMA IP address range
C. MDS Name and MDS type
D. MDS Name and MDS IP address
E. MDS IP address and CMA IP address range
Answer: D

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NO.11 After the trial period expires, a permanent license must be installed. To successfully install a bundle
license before the trial license expires, you must disable the trial license. Which of the following
commands will disable the trial-period license on a CMA before the license expires?
A. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 1
B. SetPNPDisable lic
C. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 0
D. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 0
E. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 1
Answer: E

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NO.12 All Check Point Products come with a 15-day trial-period license. How many CMAs can be managed
by an MDS
Manager running with only the trial license?
A. 500
B. 1
C. 200
D. 5
E. 100
Answer: C

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NO.13 Secure communication from CMAs to the Security Gateways uses which type of encryption?
A. Traffic between CMAs and Security Gateways is not encrypted. Therefore, no encryption is used.
B. IKE with pre-shared secret
C. 256-bit SSL encryption
D. 128-bit SSL encryption
E. RSA encryption
Answer: D

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NO.14 When you set up Administrator permissions during the initial installation and configuration process,
which of the
following options is NOT available?
A. Regular Administrator (None)
B. Customer Superuser
C. Provider Superuser
D. Provider Manager
E. Customer Manager
Answer: D

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NO.15 To configure for CMA redundancy, which of the following would be necessary?
A. Multiple MDS Container machines
B. The CMA High Availability option selected in the CMA properties window
C. Multiple CMAs configured on a single MDS
D. Multiple MDS Manager machines
E. The CMA High Availability option selected in the Customer properties window
Answer: A

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NO.16 As a Provider-1 Administrator, you are concerned about the security of your NOC. You decide to install
a NOC firewall and hire a firewall expert to administer it. Your firewall expert wants to institute some
security measures to increase the firewall's ability to protect the NOC. One of his ideas is to hide all of the
invalid IP addresses of the CMAs, by installing a Hide NAT Policy on the firewall. Will this plan work?
A. Yes, because the CMAs use virtual IP addresses, and they require a single valid IP address to manage
remote Security Gateways.
B. No, because Hide NAT does not allow remote Gateways to connect directly to the CMAs.
C. Yes, but only if Hide NAT is configured with the Hide address of 0.0.0.0.
D. No, because VPN-1 NGX does not allow Administrators to configure Hide NAT on objects with
assigned virtual IP addresses.
E. Yes, but only if Hide NAT is configured with the Hide address of the leading MDS interface.
Answer: B

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NO.17 The Eventia Reporter Add-on for Provider-1 does not have its own package. It is installed, removed,
enabled, and disabled using which of the following scripts?
A. SVRSetup
B. sysconfig
C. cpconfig
D. SetupUtil
E. EVRSetup
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the function of a CLM?
A. Performs system backups of the Primary and Secondary MDS machines.
B. Regulates ConnectControl traffic from the NOC to remote Gateways.
C. Serves as a backup CMA for CMA-level High Availability.
D. Protects the Provider-1 system from a network attack.
E. Collects log data for managed Security Gateways.
Answer: E

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NO.19 The Rule Base shown below is installed on the NOC firewall at the MSP:If the Administrator intended to
install licenses on remote Security Gateways by using SmartUpdate, this Rule Base is incomplete. Which
of the following additions would complete the Rule Base configuration?
<e ip="4-1.gif"></e>
A. The MDS must be added to the Source column of the CMAs-to-Security Gateways Rule.
B. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the MDS.
C. Create a rule that allows the remote Gateways access to the CMAs.
D. Create a rule allowing the Primary and Secondary MDS machines located at the NOC to connect to
each other.
E. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the NOC firewall.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which service does the MDG use to connect to the MDS?
A. SAM
B. CPD
C. CPMI
D. SWTP
E. SVC
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 156-315.71
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert R71)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 480 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-16

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NO.1 What is a task of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?
A. Add events to the events database.
B. Look for patterns according to the installed Event Policy.
C. Assign a severity level to an event
D. Display the received events.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You want to verify that your Check Point cluster is working correctly. Which command line tool can you
use?
A. cphaconf state
B. cphaprob state
C. cphainfo-s
D. cphastart -status
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic
uploads of reports to a central FTP server?
A. Smart Dashboard Log Consolidator
B. Security Management Server
C. Smart Reporter Database
D. Smart Reporter
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN?
A. LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID
B. DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS
C. LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID
D. LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID
Answer: B

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NO.5 John is configuring a new R71 Gateway cluster but he can not configure the cluster as Third Party IP
Clustering because this option is not available in Gateway Cluster Properties: What's happening?
A. John is not using third party hardware as IP Clustering is part of Check Point's IP Appliance B .Third
Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
B. ClusterXL needs to be unselected to permit 3rd party clustering configuration.
C. John has an invalid ClusterXL license.
Answer: C

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NO.6 ________is a proprietary Check Point protocol. it is the basis for Check Point ClusterXL inter-module
communication.
A. RDP
B. CCP
C. CKPP
D. HA OPCODE
Answer: B

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NO.7 Check point Clustering protocol, works on:
A. UDP 8116
B. UDP 500
C. TCP 8116
D. TCP 19864
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which procedure creates a new administrator in SmartWorkflow?
A. Run cpconfig, supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
B. In SmartDashboard, click SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow and the Enable SmartWorkflow
wizard will start. Supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions
when prompted.
C. On the Provider-1 primary MDS, run cpconfig, supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name,
Access Applications and Permissions.
D. In SmartDashboard, click Users and Administrators right click Administrators / New Administrator and
supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are establishing a ClusterXL environment, with the following topology: External interfaces
192.168.10.1 and 192.168.10.2 connect to a VLAN switch. The upstream router connects to the same
VLAN switch. Internal interfaces 172.16 10.1 and 172.16.10.2 connect to a hub. 10.10.10.0 is the
synchronization network. The Security Management Server is located on the internal network with IP
172.16.10.3. What is the problem with this configuration?
A. There is an IP address conflict
B. The Security Management Server must be in the dedicated synchronization network, not the internal
network.
C. The Cluster interface names must be identical across all cluster members.
D. Cluster members cannot use the VLAN switch. They must use hubs.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setsync 0
B. fw ctl sysnstat stop
C. fw ctl sysnstat off
D. fw ctl setsyns off
Answer: D

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NO.11 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by
the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

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NO.12 You need to publish SecurePlatform routes using the ospf routing protocol. What is the correct
command structure, once entering the route command, to implement ospf successfully?
A. Run cpconfig utility to enable ospf routing
B. ip route ospf
ospf network1
ospf network2
C. Enable
Configure terminal
Router ospf [id]
Network [network] [wildmask] area [id]
D. Use DBedit utility to either the objects_5_0.c file
Answer: C

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NO.13 How does a cluster member take over the VIP after a failover event?
A. Ping the sync interface
B. if list -renew
C. Broadcast storm
D. Gratuitous ARP
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following commands can be used to stop Management portal services?
A. fw stopportal
B. cpportalstop
C. cpstop / portal
D. smartportalstop
Answer: D

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NO.16 You are MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of two
cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is behaving
strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster synchronization cluster link
(cross-over cable).
Which of the following commands is the best for testing the connectivity of the crossover cable?
A. telnet <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
B. arping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
C. ifconfig a
D. Ping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
Answer: B

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NO.17 Organizations are sometimes faced with the need to locate cluster members in different geographic
locations that are distant from each other. A typical example is replicated data centers whose location is
widely separated for disaster recovery purposes.
What are the restrictions of this solution?
A. There are no restrictions.
B. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 150 ms latency
(ITU Standard G.114).
C. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100 ms latency.
D. There are two restrictions: 1. The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100ms
latency and no more than 5% packet loss. 2. The synchronization network may only include switches and
hubs.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following statements about the Port Scanning feature of IPS is TRUE?
A. The default scan detection is when more than 500 open inactive ports are open for a period of 120
seconds.
B. The Port Scanning feature actively blocks the scanning, and sends an alert to SmartView Monitor.
C. Port Scanning does not block scanning; it detects port scans with one of three levels of detection
sensitivity.
D. When a port scan is detected, only a log is issued, never an alert.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Refer to Exhibit:
Match the ClusterXL Modes with their configurations
A. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
B. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
C. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
D. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Answer: C

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NO.20 When you check Web Server in a host-node object, what happens to the host?
A. The Web server daemon is enabled on the host.
B. More granular controls are added to the host, in addition to Web Intelligence tab settings.
C. You can specify allowed ports in the Web server's node-object properties. You then do not need to list
all allowed ports in the Rule Base.
D. IPS Web Intelligence is enabled to check on the host.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 156-215.75
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 531 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-16

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NO.1 The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A. Session and Network layers
B. Application and Presentation layers
C. Physical and Datalink layers
D. Network and Datalink layers
Answer: D

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NO.2 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003 server as the
SmartConsole and a second server running SecurePlatform as both Security Management Server and
the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Unsupported configuration.
B. Hybrid Installation.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Once installed, the R75 kernel resides directly below which layer of the OSI model? Note: Application
is the top and Physical is the bottom of the IP stack.
A. Network
B. Transport
C. Data Link
D. Session
Answer: A

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NO.4 How can you most quickly reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a Security
Management Server and Security Gateway?
A. Run the command fwm sic-reset to initialize the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) of the Security
Management Server. Then retype the activation key on the Security Gateway from SmartDashboard.
B. Use SmartDashboard to retype the activation key on the Security Gateway. This will automatically
Sync SIC to both the Security Management Server and Gateway.
C. From cpconfig on the Gateway, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and retype the
activation key. Next, retype the same key in the Gateway object in SmartDashboard and reinitialize
Secure Internal Communications (SIC).
D. From the Security Management Server s command line, Type fw putkey p <shared key> < IP Address
of security Gateway>.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about Bridge mode is TRUE.?
A. When managing a Security Gateway in Bridge mode, it is possible to use a bridge interface for Network
Address Translation.
B. Assuming a new installation, bridge mode requires changing the existing IP routing of the network.
C. All ClusterXL modes are supported.
D. A bridge must be configured with a pair of interfaces.
Answer: D

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NO.6 The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one Linux Enterprise 3.0 server
working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2003 as both Security Management
Server running Windows 2003 as both Security Management Server and Security Gateway. This is an
example of a(n).
A. Stand-Alone Installation
B. Distributed Installation
C. Hybrid Installation
D. Unsupported configuration
Answer: D

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NO.7 R75's INSPECT Engine inserts itself into the kernel between which two layers of the OSI model?
A. Presentation and Application
B. Physical and Data
C. Session and Transport
D. Data and Network
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track remote administrative activities?
A. WebUI
B. Eventia Reporter
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.9 Of the three mechanisms Check Point uses for controlling traffic, which enables firewalls to incorporate
layer 4 awareness in packet inspection?
A. IPS
B. Packet filtering
C. Stateful Inspection
D. Application Intelligence
Answer: C

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NO.10 UDP packets are delivered if they are _________.
A. A legal response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IP
B. A Stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN-/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IP
C. Reference in the SAM related Dynamic tables
D. Bypassing the Kernel by the forwarding layer
of clusterXL
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-215.75   156-215.75

NO.11 During which step in the installation process is it necessary to note the fingerprint for first-time
verification?
A. When establishing SIC between the Security Management Server and the Gateway
B. When configuring the Security Management Server using cpconfig
C. When configuring the Security Gateway object in SmartDashboard
D. When configuring the Gateway in the WebUl
Answer: B

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NO.12 When Jon first installed the system, he forgot to configure DNS servers on his Security Gateway.
How could Jon configure DNS servers now that his Security Gateway is in production?
A. Login to the firewall using SSH and run cpconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.
B. Login to the firewall using SSH and run fwm, then select System Configuration and Domain Name
Servers.
C. Login to the SmartDashboard, edit the firewall Gateway object, select the tab Interfaces, then Domain
Name Servers.
D. Login to the firewall using SSH and run sysconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following statements is TRUE about management plug-ins?
A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.
B. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and
support for new products.
C. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of
the plug-in.
D. Installing a management plug-in is just like an upgrade process. (It overwrites existing components.)
Answer: B

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NO.14 When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which
other Check Point architecture component?
A. SecureClient
B. Security Gateway
C. SmartConsole
D. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are running the Security Gateway on SecurePlatform and configure SNX with default settings. The
client fails to connect to the Security Gateway. What is wrong?
A. The routing table on the client does not get modified.
B. The client has Active-X blocked.
C. The client is configured incorrectly.
D. The SecurePlatform Web User Interface is listening on port 443.
Answer: D

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NO.16 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003 server as
SmartConsole and Security Management Server with a second server running SecurePlatform as
Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Hybrid Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.17 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP workstation as the
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as Security Management Server, and a third server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Stand-Alone Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.18 How can you recreate the account of the Security Administrator, which was created during initial
installation of the Management Server on SecurePlatform?
A. Launch cpconfig and delete the Administrator's account. Recreate the account with the same name.
B. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an editor, and delete
the Administrator Account portion of the file. You will be prompted to create a new account.
C. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing Administrator's account name. Reset the Security
Administrator's password.
D. Launch SmartDashboard in the User Management screen, and delete the cpconfig administrator.
Answer: A

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NO.19 You are a security architect and need to design a secure firewall, VPN and IPS solution. Where would
be the best place to install IPS in the topology if the internal network is already protected?
A. On the firewall itself to protect all connected networks centrally.
B. On each network segment separately.
C. On the LAN is enough, the DMZ does not need to be protected.
D. In front of the firewall is enough.
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are installing a Security Management Server. Your security plan calls for three administrators for
this particular server. How many can you create during installation?
A. Depends on the license installed on the Security Management Server
B. Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C. One
D. As many as you want
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 156-215.13
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator - GAiA)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 358 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-16

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NO.1 Your bank's distributed R76 installation has Security Gateways up for renewal. Which
SmartConsole application will tell you which Security Gateways have licenses that will expire within
the next 30 days?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartPortal
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartDashboard
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R76
Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete and valid list.
A. SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView Monitor
C. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate, SmartView Status
D. Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R76?
A. Security Gateway
B. Management Server
C. Policy Server
D. SmartLSM
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is a hash algorithm?
A. DES
B. IDEA
C. MD5
D. 3DES
Answer: A

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NO.5 The INSPECT engine inserts itself into the kernel between which two OSI model layers?
A. Physical and Data
B. Session and Transport
C. Data and Network
D. Presentation and Application
Answer: C

CheckPoint test questions   156-215.13   156-215.13

NO.6 A digital signature:
A. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.
B. Automatically exchanges shared keys.
C. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.
D. Decrypts data to its original form.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one SecurePlatform server
working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2008 as both Security
Management Server and Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Distributed Installation
B. Stand-Alone Installation
C. Hybrid Installation
D. Unsupported configuration
Answer: D

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NO.8 You manage a global network extending from your base in Chicago to Tokyo, Calcutta and
Dallas. Management wants a report detailing the current software level of each Enterprise class
Security Gateway. You plan to take the opportunity to create a proposal outline, listing the most
cost-effective way to upgrade your Gateways. Which two SmartConsole applications will you use to
create this report and outline?
A. SmartLSM and SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Tracker and SmartView Monitor
C. SmartView Monitor and SmartUpdate
D. SmartDashboard and SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?
A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Symmetric encryption
C. Certificate-based encryption
D. Dynamic encryption
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartReporter
C. WebUI
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.11 Message digests use which of the following?
A. SHA-1 and MD5
B. IDEA and RC4
C. SSL and MD4
D. DES and RC4
Answer: C

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NO.12 UDP packets are delivered if they are ___________.
A. referenced in the SAM related dynamic tables
B. a valid response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IP
C. a stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IP
D. bypassing the kernel by the forwarding layer of ClusterXL
Answer: B

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NO.13 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2008 server
as the SmartConsole and a second server running SecurePlatform as both Security Management
Server and the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Stand-Alone Installation
B. Distributed Installation
C. Unsupported configuration
D. Hybrid Installation
Answer: A

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NO.14 When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R76?
A. User Name, Management Server IP , certificate fingerprint file
B. User Name, Password, Management Server IP
C. Password, Management Server IP
D. Password, Management Server IP , LDAP Server IP
Answer: D

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NO.15 You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site
VPN with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to
confirm your suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Status
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 156-715-70
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NO.1 You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied.
Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E

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NO.3 Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to
view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a
record of all
internal IPs passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security
Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D

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NO.5 VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C

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NO.6 The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a
problem with an NGX
product.
A. List Possible Causes
B. Identify the Problem
C. Collect Related Information
D. Consult Various Reference Sources
E. Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check
Point's
troubleshooting guidelines?
F. B, C, A, E, D
G. A, E, B, D, C
H. A, B, C, D, E
I. B, A, D, E, C
J. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A

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NO.7 Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). If an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what
information
will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E

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NO.8 fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer. What happens if the buffer
becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored
in the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr.
Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A

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NO.10 NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared
secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before
allowing it access
to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic
load passing
through a Security Gateway.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 156-915-71
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert R71 Update)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 312 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-16

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NO.1 To change the default port of the Management Portal,
A. Editthe masters.conffileon the Portal server.
B. Modify the file cp_httpd_admin.conf.
C. Run sysconfig and change the management interface
D. Re-initializeSIC.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Where do Gateways managed by SmartProvisioning fetch their assigned profiles?
A. The Smartview Monitor
B. The standalone SmartProvisioning server
C. The Security Management server or CMA
D. They are fetched locally from the individual device
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have a High Availability ClusterXL configuration.Machines arenot synchronizer. What happens to
connections on failover?
A. It is not possible to configure High Availabilitythat is not synchronized.
B. B. Old connections are lost but can be reestablished.
C. Connection cannot be established until cluster members are fully synchronized.
D. Old connections are lost but are automatically recovered whenever the failed machine
recovers.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setaync 0
B. fw ctl syncsatat stop
C. fw ctl syncstat off
D. fw ctl setsync off
Answer: D

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NO.5 What process manages the dynamic routing protocols (ospp, RIP, etc) on SecurelPlatform Pro?
A. gated
B. arouted
C. routerd
D. There s no separate process, but the Linux default router can take care of that.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Refer to the network topology below. You have IPS Software Blades active on the Security Gateways
sglondon, sgla, andsgny, but still experience attacks on the Web server in the New York DMZ. How is this
possible?
A. AH of these options are possible.
B. The attacker may have used a bunch of evasion techniques likeusing escape sequence instead of
cleartext commands.It is also possible that thereare entry points not shown in the network layout, like
rogue access points.
C. Since other Gateways do not have IPS activated, attacks may originate from their network without
anyone noticing.
D. An IPS may combine different detection technologies, but is dependent on regular signature updates
and well-turned anomaly algorithms.Even if this is accomplished, notechnology can offer 100 %
protection.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which Remote Desktop protocols are supported natively in SSL VPN?
A. Microsoft RDP only
B. AT&T VNC and Microsoft RDP
C. Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
D. AT&T VNC, Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
Answer: D

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NO.8 Due to some recent performance issues, you are asked to add additional processors to your firewall. If
you already have CoreXL enabled, how are you able to increase Kernel instances?
A. Kernel instances are automatically added after process installed and no additional configuration is
needed.
B. In SmartUpdate, right-click on Firewall Object and choose Add Kernel instances.
C. Once CoreXL is installed you cannot enable additional Kernel instances without reinstalling R71.
D. Use cpconfig to reconfigure CoreXL.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following is the default port few Management Portal?
A. 4434
B. 443
C. 444
D. 4433
Answer: D

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NO.10 When using ClusterXl in load sharing, what method is used be default?
A. IPs, SPIs
B. IPs, Ports, SPIs
C. IPs
D. IPs, Ports
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which at the followingcommands showsfull synchronization status?
A. cphaprob-ilist.
B. fw ctliflist
C. Fw hastat
D. cphaprob aif
Answer: A

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NO.12 To force clients to use integritySecurity Workspace when accessing sensitive applications, the
Administrator can configure Connectra:
A. Via protection levels
B. To implement integrity Clientless Security
C. To force the user to re-authenticate at login
D. Without a special setting. Secure Workspace is automatically configured.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Your company has the requirement that SmartEvent reports should show a detailed and accurate view
of network activity but also performance should be guaranteed. Which actions should be taken to achieve
that?
A. (i), (ii) and (iv)
B. (i), (iii), (iv)
C. (ii) and (iv)
D. (i) and (ii)
Answer: C

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NO.14 John isconfiguring anew R17 Gateway cluster but he cannot configurethecluster asThird Party IP
Clusteringin Gateway Cluster Properties:
What s happening?
A. Johnis not using thirdparty hardware asIP Clustering ispart of Check Point sIPAppliance.
B. Third Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
C. ClusterXLneeds to be unsetected to permit 3nd party clustering configuration.
D. John has an invalid ClusterXL license
Answer: C

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NO.15 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing - Unicast
B. Load Balancing - Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following is NOT an Smartevent event-triggered Automatic Reaction?
A. Mail
B. Block Access
C. External Script
D. SNMP Trap
Answer: B

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NO.17 If Victor wanted to edit new Signature Protections, what tab would he need to access inSmart
Dashboard?
A. QoS Tab
B. SmartDefense Tab
C. IPSec VPN Tab
D. IPS Tab
Answer: D

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NO.18 When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Client Auth or Session Auth connections through a cluster member will be lost if the cluster member
fails.
B. The stare of connection using resources is maintained by a Security Server, so there
connections cannot be synchronized.
C. Only cluster members running on me same OS platform can be synchronized.
D. In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite a properly
working synchronization.
Answer: D

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NO.19 TotallyCoolSecuirty Company has a large security staff. Bob configured a new IPS
Chicago_Profile for fw-Chicagousing Detect mode. After reviewing Matt noticed that fw-Chicagois not
detecting any of the IPS protections that Bob had previously setup. Analyze the output below and
determine how Mattcorrectsthe problem.
A. Matt should assign the fw-ChicagoSecurity Gateway to theChicago_Profile.
B. Matt should theChicago_Profile to useProtect mode because Detect mode
C. Matt should re-create theChicago_Profile and select Activeprotections manually instead of per
theIPSPolicy.
D. Mattshouldactivatethe Chicago_Profileasitis currently notactivated.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which SmartEvent, what is the Correlation Unit's function?
A. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database
B. Assign seventy levels to events
C. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy
D. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns
Answer: D

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NO.21 YoujustupgradedtoR71 and are using the IPS Software Blade You want toenable all critical protections
while keeping the rate of false positively verylow.How can you achieve this?
A. The new IPS system is basedon policies, but it has no abilitytocalculate or change the
confidence level, so it always has a high rate of falsepositives.
B. This can t be achieved; activating any IPS system always causes ahigh rate of false positives.
C. The new IPS system is based on policies and gives you the abilitytoactivate all checks with critical
severity and a high confidence level.
D. As in SmartDefense,this can be achieved by activating all the criticalchecks manually.
Answer: C

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NO.22 After repairing a SmartWorkflow session:
A. The session moves to status Repaired and a new session can be started
B. The session moves to status Awaiting Repair and must be resubmitted
C. The session is continued with status Not approved and a new session must be started
D. The session is discarded and a new session is automatically started
Answer: B

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NO.23 A customer is calling saying one member's status is Down.What will you check?
A. cphaprob list (verify what critical device is down)
B. Fw ctl debug m cluster + forward(forwarding layer debug)
C. tcpdump/snoop (CCP traffic)
D. fw ctlpstat (check sync)
Answer: A

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NO.24 The default port for browser access to the Management Portal is
A. 4433
B. 4343
C. 8080
D. 443
Answer: A

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NO.25 A customer calls saying that a load-sharing cluster shows drops with the error First packet is
notSYN.Completethe followingsentence. I will recommend:
A. Change the load on each member.
B. configuring flush and ack
C. turning off SDF (Sticky Decision Function)
D. turning on SDF (Sticky Decision Function)
Answer: D

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NO.26 In configure a client to property log in to the user portal using a certificate, the Administrator MUST:
A. Create aninternal userin the admin portal.
B. Install an R71 internal Certificate Authority certificate.
C. Create a client certificate fromSmart Dashboard
D. Store the clientcertificate on the SSL VPN Gateway
Answer: C

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NO.27 How do you verify the Check Pant kernel running on a firewall.?
A. fw ctrl get kernel
B. fw ctrl pstat
C. fwkernel
D. fwver -k
Answer: D

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NO.28 By default, a standby Security Management Server is automatically synchronized by an active Security
Management Server, when:
A. The Security Policy is saved.
B. The Security Policy is installed.
C. The user database is installed.
D. The standby Security Management Server starts for the first time.
Answer: A

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NO.29 Whichof theft flowing is TRUE concerning unnumberedVPNTunnelInterfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTTs cannot be assigned a proxy interface
B. Local IP addresses are not configured, remoteIPaddresses are configured
C. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback
D. VTIs are only supported on the IPSO Operating System
Answer: B

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NO.30 What SmartConsole application allows you to change the Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartReporter
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartEvent Server
D. Smart Dashboard
Answer: A

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