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Exam Code: HP0-M24
Exam Name: HP (HP Operations Manager Software v8 for Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 Which communication technology is used by policy management to deploy policies to a DCE
agent on Windows?
A.WMI
B.RPC
C.SNMP
D.DCOM
Correct:B

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NO.2 You want to monitor the free disk space on a managed node. You want to get a critical message
the first time the free space is below 20%. If the disk free space stays below 20%, you want to get
warning messages. What is the easiest way to achieve this?
A.Use Scripting and store if the rule matched the first time or not in a SESSION variable.
B.Use the start action to create the critical message and the continue action to create the warning
message.
C.There is no special configuration necessary. If a threshold is violated multiple times, then warning
messages will be created automatically after
D.
E.Specify two threshold rules (using 20% both times). In the first rule, select 'first time only' and create the
critical message. In the second rule,
F.
Correct:B

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NO.3 As an OM for Windows administrator, you are developing a policy that will create specialized
messages for each entry in a log file. You are NOT sure if you already covered all possible entries
(events). How can you as an administrator collect 'unmatched events' so that you are able to
analyze these and enhance your policy withoutdisturbing the operator's daily work? (Select two.)
A.Use the 'Log local events that don't match any rule' feature.
B.Use the 'unmatched events are sent to the active Message browser' feature.
C.Use the 'unmatched events are sent to the management server log file' feature.
D.Use the 'unmatched events are sent to the acknowledged Message browser' feature.
Correct:A D

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NO.4 What happens if you have placed version 1.0 of a policy in Policy Management->Polices
Groups->MyWebServers and then create version 1.1 of the same policy below Policy
Management->Polices Grouped by Type?
A.Version 1.0 and version 1.1 of the policy are now in the policy group.
B.Version 1.0 of the policy in the policy group is automatically updated to version 1.1.
C.Version 1.0 of the policy in the policy group is NOT automatically updated to version 1.1.
D.Version 1.1 of the policy CANNOT be created because version 1.0 is already in a policy group.
Correct:C

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NO.5 Which type of policy allows only one deployed policy per node?
A.Nodeinfo
B.SNMP Interceptor
C.Service Discovery
D.Open Message Interface
E.Flexible Management
Correct:E

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NO.6 You have 30 rules in one policy. How can you set the same message key in the outgoing
messages for all the rules that have already been created? (Select two.)
A.Change the message key field in each of the 30 rules separately.
B.Select all 30 rules. Choose 'Modify' and 'outgoing message' and overwrite the message key field.
C.Choose 'Message defaults'. Enter a message key in the message key field. This overwrites the current
message key of each rule.
D.If the message key was NOT already set, choose 'Message defaults'. Enter a message key in the
message key field. This will be applied for all
E.
Correct:A D

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NO.7 What can you use to configure outages? (Select two.)
A.an outage server policy type
B.the node menu in the console for unplanned outagesthe node? menu in the console for unplanned
outages
C.the service's menu in the console for scheduled outages
D.the command line tool ovowserviceutil for unplanned outages
E.the ovpolicy tool to disable the policies for the nodes in outage
Correct:B D

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NO.8 You manually installed the agent software on a Windows node. When you look at the package
inventory on the server, this shows an empty list. What do you have to doto be able to see the
actual complete package inventory?
A.Execute 'Redeploy all'.
B.Execute 'opcsw -installed'.
C.Execute 'Synchronize packages' from the node pop-up menu.
D.Deploy a policy. This implicitly synchronizes the complete package inventory.
Correct:C

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NO.9 What is the maximum number of deployment jobs that are active for the same node?
A.1
B.5
C.10
D.12
Correct:A

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NO.10 Which statements are true regarding policy groups? (Select two.)
A.A policy group can contain other policy groups.
B.A policy group can contain policies of different policy types.
C.A policy group always contains the latest version of a policy.
D.A policy group can only contain policies of the same platform.
E.A policy group can contain different versions of the same policy.
Correct:A B

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Exam Code: HP0-M22
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Service Manager Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 How many threads does a Service Manager user establish on the RDBMS?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which file contains information on self-service license usage?
A. sc.log
B. sm.log
C. sm.alert.log
D. system.startup
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which startup parameter is required to connect Service Manager to its RDBMS?
A. sqllogin
B. sqldebug
C. sqlconnect
D. sqlfetchrows
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which debugger is available from the Service Manager Windows client? (Select two.)
A. RAD Debugger
B. Advanced Debugger
C. JavaScript Debugger
D. Web Client Debugger
Answer: AB

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NO.5 What must all Service Manager communications to the RDBMS go through?
A. the client
B. the web tier
C. the application server
D. the web services interface
Answer: C

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NO.6 To which file are debugging parameters added?
A. sm.ini
B. sm.log
C. sm.cfg
D. System-Wide Information Record
Answer: A

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NO.7 Where are RDBMS permissions controlled?
A. in LDAP
B. in the RDBMS
C. in the Service Manager client
D. in the Service Manager server
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which application in Service Manager stores ITIL's configuration items?
A. Incident Management
B. Change Management
C. Release Management
D. Configuration Management
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which data type typically represents the Service Manager character data type on the RDBMS?
A. text
B. float
C. varchar
D. Boolean
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which RDBMS running on UNIX is compatible with Service Manager?
A. P4
B. Oracle 10
C. Sybase 12.5
D. SQL Server 2005
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which statement is true about deploying the Windows client?
A. It should never be deployed.
B. There is no Windows client to deploy.
C. It should be deployed to perform tailoring.
D. It should be deployed to accomplish daily operation tasks.
Answer: C

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NO.12 For what is Service Manager considered an authoritative source?
A. contact data
B. location data
C. incident data
D. email addresses
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is used as a condition for a menu or a display option that makes an option only available to
system administrators?
A. index($ucapex,"SysAdmin")=0
B. index("SysAdmin",$lo.ucapex)>0
C. index("SysAdmin",$lo.ucapex)=0
D. index($lo.ucapex,"SysAdmin")>0
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which access method is used to connect to the SQL Server Database from Service Manager?
A. web services
B. SQL Server API
C. SQL Server client
D. ODBC driver for SQL Server
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which application in Service Manager is associated with ITIL v2 Definitive Software Library (DSL)?
A. Project Management
B. Release Management
C. Problem Management
D. Service Lifecycle Management
Answer: B

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NO.16 Where are Service Manager localized notifications set up?
A. rules wizard
B. macro engine
C. message class D. notification engine
Answer: D

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NO.17 How can new fields be added to the RDBMS when the Service Manager user does not have alter
rights to the database? (Select two.)
A. by mapping the new fields to a null table
B. by adding the field to the dbdict and clicking on SM Alters
C. by adding the fields to the RDBMS and having Service Manager detect them
D. by supplying the DDL from the Alter dialog box to the Database Administrator
Answer: CD

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NO.18 What determines case sensitivity in Service Manager?
A. case setting in the sm.ini
B. case setting of the DBDICT utility
C. database (RDBMS) configuration settings D. case sensitivity settings in the System-Wide Information
Record
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which file contains debugging information?
A. sm.log
B. debug.log
C. send.log
D. sm.alert.log
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is a valid database choice for Service Manager?
A. Service Manager proprietary database, P4
B. any RDBMS that supplies an ODBC connection
C. MS SQL Server that can be used with any application server
D. MS SQL Server that can only be used with a Windows-based application server
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-J28
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP StorageWorks Virtual Library Systems)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 With the maximum number of supported nodes, running the VLS software version 3.x, how many arrays
are supported in a VLS9000?
A.8
B.16
C.32
D.64
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are advantages of having separate zones for disk storage systems and disk-to-disk backup
systems in storage area networks? (Select two.)
A.The physical and virtual tape controllers do not discover disk controllers.
B.Administrative and management costs are lower.
C.Tape multipathing functionality can be used to map the physical and virtual devices.
D.There is less host access and improved target and LUN shifting.
E.Performance is improved, due to dedicated HBAs for disk and tape access.
Answer: AE

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NO.3 What is oversubscription in the context of virtual libraries?
A.more capacity allocated than physically installed
B.more libraries created than currently licensed
C.more virtual drives created than currently licensed
D.more data streams than the library can process
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is an advantage of using the automigration feature of virtual library systems?
A.The tapes are analyzed during backup to migrate all files. After the content is decoded, only those files
are compared to the same files from the previous backup.B.It leverages object-level differencing code
with a design centered on performance and scalability.
C.The destination tapes are block-by-block copies of the source tapes and can easily be restored by any
tape library to which the backup application has access.
D.It delivers fastest restores from recently backed up data, maintains the complete most recent copy of
backup data, but eliminates duplicate data in previous backups.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When would you opt to use an HP Data Protector environment with Advanced Backup to Disk licensing
in conjunction with a virtual library system instead of a traditional backup-to-disk solution? (Select two.)
A.when you want to use target-based compression
B.when the environment consists mainly of LAN clients
C.when you want to use existing SAN storage or locally attached storage
D.when there are many SAN hosts writing to disk
E.when there are relatively few SAN hosts writing to disk
Answer: AD

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Exam Code: HP0-755
Exam Name: HP (HP OpenView Operations II (7.x) UNIX )
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 The embedded performance component collects several metrics on the managed
node and stores the data on the managed node. After ________weeks the first week
of data is overwritten.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
Answer: C

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NO.2 Assume that the manager-to-manager configuration has been completed. Choose
the three statements that are TRUE regarding Message Forwarding.
A. Message Forwarding is done automatically by the initiating management server.
B. The message can be forwarded to multiple managers.
C. The message status updates are propagated to the management servers which hold a
copy of the message.
D. Messages can be forwarded to managed nodes.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.3 The message manager must reread the configuration template for the outages if the
system administrator or an external application has changed that file.
A command line tool, _________, is available to start the (re-)configure request.
A. opccfgout -update
B. opccfgout - refresh
C. opcconfig -update
D. opcforwm -refresh
Answer: A

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NO.4 A template is needed for the configuration of the service hours/scheduled outages.
This template is ____________.
A. an XML file on the agent describing which action must be taken at the current time
B. located in /etc/opt/OV/share/conf/OpC/mgmt_sv/respmgrs/outage on the management
server
C. an OVO template type, that will be distributed to the agents
D. a binary file on the management server located in /etc/opt/OV/share
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have distributed a followthesun template to twenty managed nodes, and now
decide that two of these nodes need unique templates. What should you do?
A. Create node specific templates for those two nodes and distribute templates to the two
managed nodes.
B. Remove all templates from the respmgrs directory and distribute templates with the
Force option checked to the two managed nodes.
C. Log onto the two managed nodes and update the template from their distribution trees.
D. Perform a template distribution to the two managed nodes with the templates option
unchecked
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have a backup OpenView Operations management server and you wish to
replicate the OVO database configuration from your production system. The
commands you will execute are ____.
A. opccfgdwn, opcmgrdist, opccfgupld
B. opccfgdwn, opccfgupld
C. opctmplexport opctmplimport
D. export data from oracle database into a file and reload it
Answer: A

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NO.7 In an MC/Service Guard installation, which directories are located on the share
drive?
A. /opt/OV/bin
B. /opt/Oracle
C. /var/opt/OV/share and /etc/opt/OV/share
D. /etc/opt/OV
Answer: C

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NO.8 To determine a managed node's primary manager in a backup server flexible
management environment:
A. the management server is added to the snmp destination list on the managed node.
B. the IP address of the management server is held in the file
/var/opt/OV/share/conf/mgrconf.
C. the hostname of the management server is held in the file
/var/opt/OV/conf/OpC/primmgr.
D. the managed node responds to any OVO management server which establishes
heartbeat polling.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Escalation of messages:
A. occurs at management server level; the managed nodes continue to send messages to
their primary managers.
B. causes the original message to be acknowledged in the active browser of the operator
who escalated it, so that it is only displayed on the escalated station.
C. permits the operator to select an alternative management server to display the
escalated message.
D. allows messages from managed nodes to be sent by the managed node to a specified
secondary manager.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which one of the following statements about individual messages is true?
A. When message forwarding is enabled, the managed node will send multiple copies of
configured messages to each responsible manager.
B. Managed nodes can send the same message with the same GUID to each responsible
manager listed in its' flexible management template.
C. A message sent from a managed node has a unique ID number (GUID), and only a
single instance of this message will be sent out from the agent.
D. When a message is escalated to another management server, a second message with a
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Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-061
Exam Name: HP (HP ProLiant Server Maintenance )
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Total Q&A: 365 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 WhichHP ProLiant Server feature communicates regularly with the HP Server Health
Driver to provide automatic restarting after a processor failure?
A. Embedded HP Diagnostic Utility
B. RBSU - Rom Based Server Utility
C. ASR - Automatic Server Recovery
D. HP Systems Management Homepage
Answer: C

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NO.2 How do you migrate a four disk RAID 0+1 volume on a SmartArray controller to RAID
5?
A. Use the Windows Disk Management applet.
B. In Windows, run the Array Configuration Utility (ACU).
C. Boot the system and press F9 to access the ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
D. Boot the system and press F8 to access the Online ROM Configuration for Arrays
(ORCA) utility.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Wherecan youfind the latest ProLiant Support Pack (PSP)? Select TWO.
A. the latest SmartStart CD
B. the latest Firmware Maintenance CD
C. from www.hp.com drivers and updates
D. the latest HP ProLiant Systems Management CD
Answer: A, C

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NO.4 What advantage does Direct Attached Storage (DAS) have over a Storage Area Network
(SAN)?
A. easy deployment
B. sufficient use of resources
C. server based management model
D. easily shared resources across multiple servers
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which Remote Management offering allows graphic and text virtual console?
A. iLO 2
B. RILOE II
C. iLO Advanced
D. Lights-Out 100
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are the two essential building blocks of modular PDUs? Select TWO.
A. control unit
B. extension bars
C. SNMP/serial card
D. extended runtime module
E. 1U/0U mounting brackets
Answer: C, E

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NO.7 Which item is required to troubleshoot a single p-Class blade server that has been
removed from its enclosure?
A. network interconnect adapter
B. diagnostic adapter and station
C. server blade management module
D. Integrated Lights-Out remote console
Answer: B

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NO.8 In direct attached mode, what is the maximum number of servers that can be connected to
the MSA500?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8
Answer: C

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NO.9 What are properties of Advanced Data Guarding? Select TWO.
A. It is recommended for up to 14 drives.
B. It protects against a ROM failure or corruption.
C. It protects against two simultaneous drive failures.
D. It allocates two sets of parity data across the drives and allows simultaneous write
operations.
E. It allocates half of the drive to data and the other half to mirrored data, providing two
copies of every file.
Answer: C, D

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NO.10 DRAG DROP
Match the term with the definition.
Answer:

NO.11 What is the only RAID level that can sustain two simultaneous drive failures?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 0+1
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.12 You are troubleshooting data corruption issues on two HP ProLiant servers connected to
the same MSA1500. You suspect it is because both servers are trying to mount and use
the same LUNS (logical units). In the MSA1500, whichfeature can you enable and use to
ensure each server gets only the storage intended for it?
A. Secure Path Manager (SPM)
B. Advanced Data Guarding (ADG)
C. Selective Storage Presentation (SSP)
D. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays (ORCA )
Answer: C

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NO.13 Whichstatementdescribes the ProLiant BL series servers?
A. ultra-dense and power-efficient
B. offers maximum internal expansion
C. self-contained, ready-to-go clustering solution
D. density optimized for rack-mounting environments
Answer: A

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NO.14 WhichHP web offering provides an easy way to get the most up to date parts information
without detailed instructions?
A. HP Part Surfer
B. HP SIM Homepage
C. HP Parts Exchange
D. HP Onsite Agent's Reference (OARS)
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is the maximum number of P-class Blade Server Enclosures supported by one
Scalable Bus Bar?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: D

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NO.16 Whatare benefits of Serial ATA (SATA) drives? Select TWO.
A. highest reliability
B. highest capacity
C. lowest price per GB
D. highest performance
E. medium to heavy read/write operations
Answer: C, D

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NO.17 Whatare features of HP Systems Insight Manager? Select FOUR.
A. device discovery
B. extended integration
C. fundamental integration
D. easy and rapid installation
E. secure remote management
F. web browser and command-line interface
Answer: A, B, D, E

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NO.18 What is the minimum number of drivesneeded in RAID ADG?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.19 On which server family is the iLO Advanced Pack enabled by default?
A. BL servers
B. CL servers
C. DL servers
D. ML servers
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which statements are true regarding PCI-X technology?Select TWO.
A. In a PCI-X system the speed is determined by the fastest device.
B. Conventional PCI adapters can operate in PCI-X systems and vice versa.
C. A PCI-X adapter placed on a conventional PCI bus is not limited to conventional PCI
speeds.
D. PCI-X is forward and backward compatible with PCI 2.2 systems at the system,
device driver and adapter levels.
Answer: A, B

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NO.21 You install a second processor in your DL380G4 but then the system does not power on
self test (POST) as expected. What is the first thing you should do?
A. Boot to the RBSU and run the server diagnostics to determine the issue.
B. Remove the second processor and upgrade the system ROM to the latest version.
C. Create a ROM diskette from ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU) and flash the system
ROM.
D. Put the new processor into the primary socket and flash the system ROM to the latest
version.
Answer: D

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NO.22 Whatare special requirements for Online Spare Memory? Select TWO.
A. The second populated bank is used as the spare memory bank.
B. Online spare memory must be configured in the ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
C. The DIMMs in the spare bank must be the same size or larger than those in the other
banks.
D. When online spare memory is present, the spare memory bank is counted during the
power-on self-test (POST) and is added to the system memory count reported to the
operating system.
Answer: B, C

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NO.23 Which HP utilityis usedto set cache read/write ratios for tuning performance?
A. Array Diagnostics Utility
B. Array Configuration Utility
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which processor currentlyuses64-bit x86-based architecture?
A. Itanium
B. Pentium IV
C. AMD Opteron
D. Pentium III Xeon
Answer: A

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NO.25 WhichHP CD/DVD set provides HP service and technical support information and
includes advisories, release notes, as well as, product documentation?
A. HP Services Media Library
B. HP Part Surfer Reference Set
C. HP Maintenance and Service Guide
D. Onsite Agent's Reference Set (OARS)
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which iLO capabilities are enabled with the iLO Advanced Pack? Select THREE.
A. Virtual Media
B. Virtual Power
C. Active Directory Integration
D. iLO Online Firmware Update
E. Terminal Services Pass-through
F. Virtual Graphical Remote Console
G. HP Systems Insight Manager Integration
Answer: A, B, F

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NO.27 A customer would liketo move four 73GB universal SCSI drives from their DL380 to
their MSA1500. Whichdrive shelf must be used to support the four 73GB drives on the
MSA1500?
A. MSA20
B. MSA30
C. MSA50
D. MSA500
Answer: A

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NO.28 Our customer reports that theHPuninterruptiblepower supply (UPS) repeatedly makes a
clicking sound. What is happening?
A. The clicking sound is a warning that the batteries are about to fail.
B. The batteries in the UPS have failed and are disconnecting themselves.
C. The UPS is regulating the power through the 'buck/double boost' feature.
D. The batteries have entered the 'intelligent charging' state and the sound will stop once
the batteries have rapid charged to 90%.
Answer: C

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NO.29 Why are blanking kits in an HP rack important?
A. to improve cooling
B. to improve rack stability
C. to improve appearances
D. to improve bottom-to-top airflow
Answer: D

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NO.30 WhichHP reference tool is available for each ProLiant product and includes information
on features, standard parts and options, models, service offerings, storage capacity,
component layout (high level), memory upgrade information, and specifications?
A. Quickspecs
B. Illustrated Parts Catalog
C. Setup and Installation Guide
D. ProLiant Servers Troubleshooting Guide
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-J33
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 What happens when you set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an
EVA to single?
A. Two disks are reserved as spare space.
B. A one-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
C. One disk is reserved as spare space.
D. A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statements are true about using thin provisioning in an EVA environment? (Select two.)
A. Extension of a LUN cannot be automated.
B. Capacity utilization is increased.
C. LUN shrink is not always supported for EVA.
D. Host agents must be installed on servers.
E. It can be performed within CommandView EVA.
Answer: BD

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NO.3 Which interface is used to connect a FATA drive to an EVA controller? (Select two.)
A. single port
B. dual port
C. Serial ATA
D. Native Fibre Channel
E. Parallel ATA
Answer: BD

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NO.4 How do you access the web-based operator control panel after installing CommandView EVA on the
management module?
A. https://<storagesystem>:2373
B. https://<storagesystem>:2372
C. https://<storagesystem>:2301
D. https://<storagesystem>:2381
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which feature is unique to the EVA8400 / 11GB cache (per controller) model when compared to other
EVA array models?
A. use of a third cache battery
B. 400TB addressable storage space
C. up to 5GB policy memory
D. maximum of 27 device shelves
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which EVA virtualization features help reduce customer Total Cost of Ownership? (Select two.)
A. load customization
B. LUN definition ruleset
C. pre-set VRAID security
D. reduced stranded capacity
E. significantly increased utilization
Answer: DE

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NO.7 Which feature is unique to the EVA4400 compared to the EVA6400 and EVA8400?
A. support of 2048 LUNs
B. use of array-based management
C. RoHS 6 of 6 compliant disk shelves
D. large LUN support
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are functions of the web-based operator control panel of an EVA4400? (Select three.)
A. view OCP log messages
B. configure SMI-S credentials
C. restart a controller
D. perform disk firmware upgrade
E. enter WWN to initialize system
F. perform array firmware upgrade
Answer: ACE

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NO.9 What must be considered when configuring the Internet Protocol settings of an EVA4400
management module?
A. The WOCP requires an IPv6 network.
B. The IP address range is restricted.
C. A limited set of protocols is supported.
D. The localhost alias must be disabled.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which service is included in the EVA6400/8400 warranty?
A. HP Support Plus service
B. HP EVA Firmware Upgrade service
C. HP Implementation service
D. HP Installation & Startup service
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which interconnect technology is used when integrating the mpx110 router into an EVA solution?
A. FCIP
B. FICON
C. iSCSI
D. WDM
Answer: A

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NO.12 How does releveling occur after the loss of one disk in a 16-member group containing ten 10GB
Vraid1 Vdisks?
A. The group does not need to relevel.
B. across 16 disks in the group
C. across 15 disks in the group
D. across 14 disks in the group
E. across 10 disks in the group
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the source of the identifying data that is inserted into the HP CommandView EVA SNMP MIB
when it is generated?
A. SMI-S agent on management host
B. hardware ASIC in the first host port that sends the event
C. default parse file
D. controller software-specific parse file
Answer: D

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NO.14 for the HP EVA, where do you find error messages, status code values, meanings, and appropriate
corrective actions?
A. product replacement instructions
B. WEBES System Event Analyzer
C. product user guide
D. HP CommandView EVA
Answer: C

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NO.15 You create a Vraid0 LUN in an EVA with 16 disks consisting of two 8-drive RSS sets. What will happen
if a single disk fails?
A. The LUN will fail even with an RSS configured.
B. The LUN will continue to operate normally due to the redundancy provided by the RSS sets.
C. The LUN cannot be configured across two RSS sets.
D. The LUN will continue to operate at reduced performance while the RSS sets rebuild the lost data.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which statements are true about mirrorclones? (Select two.)
A. If the mirrorclone is in a normalized state, you can only detach it.
B. The redundancy (Vraid) level of a mirrorclone must be the same or higher than the source.
C. Amirrorclone delta restore may be made when the mirrorclone source is also the source for a DR
group.
D. A detached mirrorclone cannot be reattached to its source.
E. HP recommends keeping mirrorclones in the same disk group as the source.
Answer: CD

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NO.17 What are required customer self-repair (replacement) parts in an EVA6400/8400? (Select two.)
A. controller cache battery
B. controller cache memory
C. hard disk drives
D. disk enclosure fan
E. Fibre Channel transceivers
Answer: CD

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NO.18 A disk group is set to double protection level and contains only Vraid1 virtual disks. What happens
when there is simultaneous loss of two physical disks from different mirrored pairs within the same
Redundant Storage Set?
A. The Vraid1 fails and there is data loss.
B. Vraid1 data migrate to Vraid5.
C. The Vraid1 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and data is preserved.
D. The Vraid1 data from the failed disks is reconstructed.
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is a physical segment (PSEG) in the EVA context?
A. smallest virtual disk space allocated on a disk drive
B. smallest physical disk space allocated on a disk drive
C. disk space containing information about the selected redundancy level of the virtual disk
D. data portion read from or written to a physical disk before the next physical disk is accessed
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which components are mandatory Customer Self Repair (CSR) on an EVA4400, EVA6400 or
EVA8400 device shelf? (Select three.)
A. midplane
B. power supply
C. fan
D. backplane
E. disk drive
F. power UID board
Answer: BCE

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Exam Code: HP0-606
Exam Name: HP (Data Protector Basics for Windows)
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Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 .The Data Protector database on the Windows Cell Manager stores information on about file names.
A. 100 million
B. 200 million
C. 450 million
D. 700 million
Answer: C

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NO.2 .What does Data Protector use for Inter-Process Communication (IPC)?
A. global
B. remote
C. port 5555
D. shared memory + pipe/socket
Answer: D

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NO.3 .To use he same device with different media pools several must be created.
A. media agents
B. media specifications
C. backup specifications
D. media rotation policies
Answer: C

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NO.4 .On HP Disk Arrays only - a local mirror, where both disks are in he same array Data Protector
integration uses
A. Control Unit
B. Business Copy
C. Continuous Access
D. Logical Volume Manager
Answer: B

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NO.5 .What lets logical volumes be mounted as disk drives?
A. domain ports
B. aparse points
C. eeparse points
D. object connect
Answer: C

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NO.6 .The Data Protector encode object option used for encryption uses a simple algorithm implemented in
a shared "C" program library.
A. XOR
B. XNOT
C. XORD
D. XNAND
Answer: A

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NO.7 .What feature of Data Protector dynamically determines which object (disk) should be backed up to
which device?
A. disk image
B. compression
C. load balancing
D. object distribution
Answer: C

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NO.8 .Media can only be exported if the protection of the sessions has expired or a has been performed.
A. verify
B. recycle
C. re-scan
D. reinitialize
Answer: B

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NO.9 .What tracks the elapsed times of key operations and registers this data collection as well as volume
data within Data Protector?
A. Cost Recovery
B. Service Monitoring
C. HP Open View Operations
D. Application Response Measurement (ARM)
Answer: D

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NO.10 .Which data flow pattern describes the way Data Protector handles a network datastream?
A. Disk-> Device
B. Disk -> Memory of Destination System -> Device
C. Disk -V Source Device -> Network -> Memory of Destination System -> Device
D. Disk -> Memory of Source System -> Network -> Memory of Destination System -> Device
Answer: D

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NO.11 .Data Protector security is based on .
A. cells
B. clients
C. devices
D. sessions
Answer: A

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NO.12 .Which type of media management service facilities communication among applications, robotic
changers and media libraries for NT systems?
A. Recovery Manager
B. Remote Control
C. Removable Storage Manager
D. Session Manager Binary Files
Answer: C

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NO.13 .All catalog information of data written to media is stored in specific if appropriate logging option is
selected.
A. Detail Catalog (DC)
B. Backup Control System (BCS)
C. Detail Catalog Binary Files (DCBF)
D. Media Management Database (MMDB)
Answer: C

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NO.14 .What determines the amount of detail on files and directories written to the Data Protector database?
A. disk quota
B. logging level
C. load balancing
D. information store
Answer: B

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NO.15 .The default installation of Data Protector includes an automatic database purge that runs every day at .
A. 12.00
B. 15.00
C. 22.00
D. 00.00
Answer: A

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NO.16 .When backing up over a SAN Data Protector can be configured with a SCSI Library so that each client
system has its' own access to library robotics and drives. This is called .
A. device sharing
B. SAN library access
C. direct library access
D. multi-drive library sharing
Answer: C

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NO.17 .What process/service runs on the Data Protector cell manager. It starts and controls backup and
restore sessions.
A. Omnilnet
B. Cell Request Server CRS)
C. Raima Database Server (RDS)
D. Media Management Daemon (MMD)
Answer: B

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NO.18 .Which function allows checking to see if the Data Protector data on a specified medium is readable?
A. verify
B. modify
C. specify
D. reinitialize
Answer: A

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NO.19 .What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify filesystem objects in the database?
A. device filenames and hostname
B. filenames mountpoint, and device
C. hostname mountpoint, and description
D. hostname device, and rawdisk sections
Answer: C

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NO.20 .What service runs on each Windows system in the Data Protector cell and is responsible for
communication between the systems in the cell?
A. Omnilnet
B. Cell Request Server (CRS)
C. Raima Database Server (RDS)
D. Media Management Daemon (MMD)
Answer: A

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NO.21 .The Media Management Database (MMDB) and Catalog Database (CDB) parts are implemented
using an embedded database consisting of tablespaces. All the changes to the MMDB and CDB are
updated using .
A. binary files
B. direct access
C. transaction logs
D. session messages
Answer: C

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NO.22 .The Data Protector user account and its service MUST have permission to access the remote
computer and permission on the Disk Agent client.
A. IP
B. Inet
C. Ipnet
D. Destination
Answer: B

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NO.23 .What are the three main media management PROTECTION features?
A. labeling, duplication and condition monitoring
B. media pool media usage and property specifications
C. on-line catalog media organization, and location tracking
D. logical organization of media, pools and allocation policies
Answer: A

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NO.24 .What are the three main media management library features?
A. labeling, duplication, and condition monitoring
B. media pool media usage, and property specifications
C. on-line catalog media organization and location tracking
D. logical organization of media pools and allocation policies
Answer: C

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NO.25 .What are the two main purposes for a media pool?
A. media condition and usage
B. logical organization and policies
C. physical description and location
D. to keep track of full backups and incremental backups
Answer: B

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NO.26 .The System Recovery Dat afile is automatically written two times. It is written once when backing up
and another time when backing up
A. the filesystem. individual files
B. replacement files. directory trees
C. a CRITICAL object; Data Protector internal database
D. the CONFIGURATION object; the Data Protector internal database
Answer: D

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NO.27 .What is the default for that Data Protector uses on all clients for communication?
A. 5050
B. 5057
C. 5555
D. 5557
Answer: C

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NO.28 .Which information does the Catalog Database (CDB) store?
A. file version information
B. backup and restore sessions
C. configured devices and media pools
D. the number of sessions performed for a given time
Answer: B

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NO.29 .Which data flow pattern describes the way Data Protector handles local datastream?
A. Disk -> Device
B. Disk -> Memory -> Device
C. Disk -> Memory -> Network -> Device
D. Disk -> Memory -> Destination Device
Answer: B

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NO.30 .Once the Manager-of-Manager has been configured, Data Protector cells can be added with the
function.
A. install
B. import
C. add cells
D. configure
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-D06
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Answer:

NO.2 Which key components are used to build a Virtual Connect infrastructure? (Select three.)
A. Virtual Connect Supervisor
B. Virtual Connect Ethernet modules
C. Virtual Connect Pass Thru modules
D. Virtual Connect Manager
E. Virtual Connect Switch Manager
F. Virtual Connect Fibre Channel modules
Answer: BDF

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NO.3 What must you do to prepare the ports before stacking Virtual Connect Ethernet Modules?
A. You must define the root port.
B. You must designate a port as a stacking port.
C. You must define upstream and downstream neighbors.
D. You do not need to do anything because configuration is automatic.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which access methods are provided by HP Systems Insight Manager? (Select two.)
A. HP Server Management GUI
B. Server Management and Scripting Utility
C. command line interface for local or serial access
D. browser-based GUI
E. command line interface for network access
Answer: DE

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NO.5 What must be done in order to configure Virtual Connect and enclosure bay IP addressing (EBIPA)
correctly? (Select two.)
A. The Onboard Administrator and all Virtual Connect modules must be in the same IP subnet.
B. The Onboard Administrator must be in an IP subnet different from that where all Virtual Connect
modules
reside.
C. Virtual Connect Ethernet modules and Virtual Connect Fibre Channel modules must be in different IP
subnets.
D. The Onboard Administrator IP address must be set properly before changing the IP addresses of the
Virtual Connect modules.
E. The IP addresses of the Virtual Connect modules must be set properly before changing the Onboard
Administrator IP address.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 Which statement is true about full virtualization?
A. It can be implemented completely only by using virtualization software.
B. It can be implemented only by using virtualization software with HP Integrity VT processor
assistance.C.It can be implemented completely either with virtualization software or with processor
virtualization assistance (AMD-V, Intel VT-x).
D. It is implemented in most operating systems at a basic level and special features require virtualization
software assistance.
Answer: C

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NO.7 How many c-class enclosures are manageable when running HP Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
1.30 or later?
A. 100
B. 200
C. 400
D. 800
Answer: D

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NO.8 Answer:

NO.9 A customer has a Central Management Server (CMS) running Insight Manager 7. What must be done
to proceed with the installation of HP Insight Dynamics - VSE?
A. Upgrade to Rapid Deployment Pack 3.7 or later.
B. Install Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager (VCEM).
C. Upgrade the server to HP Systems Insight Manager 5.3 or later.
D. Nothing more needs to be done. The installation can proceed without modification.
Answer: C

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NO.10 How many c-class enclosures are manageable by one Virtual Connect domain when running HP Virtual
Connect Enterprise Manager 1.30 or later?
A.1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

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