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Exam Code: 7004.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura® Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer Route List index shown in the exhibit, what is the first expensive route that a
call placed on that RLI could take?
A. Entry 0
B. Entry 1
C. Entry 2
D. Entry 3
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer has a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. You have been asked to
add the Call Pickup feature to the ten IP telephones in the sales department. The customer wants to be
sure active calls are not lost when the change are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled allowed you to ensure changes to the telephones
are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone is not busy?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer ¯ s p r og r a mm ed da t abase sho w n i n t he exh i b it and AC 1 = 9 , ove r w h i ch R L I w ill a ca ll
placed to 9-1-912-534-2222 complete?
A. RLI 9
B. RLI 4
C. RLI 3
D. RLI 2
E. call will not complete as dialed
Answer: B

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NO.4 The Satellite Link Control feature ensures that the configuration of a call does not include more than one
communications satellite trunk. Tandem trunk calls, when connected through more than one
communication satellite trunk, are subject to transmission distortion due to propagation.
Which parameters are required to be equipped or configured for Satellite Link Control in the
Communication Server 1000?
A. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
B. Route must be configured with STD or ETN signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
C. Network Transfer (NXFR) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN2 or ESN3 signaling
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
D. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 or ESN5 signaling.
Route must be programmed with a Traveling Class of Service (TCOS)
Answer: A

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NO.5 For a situation where you use the CDP feature at a switch equipped with the MARS software package,
which statement are correct? (Choose two)
A. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that are the same as the assignedNARS Access Cades.
B. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that aredistinct from thoseassigned NARS Access Cades.
C. You can integrate CDP numbers with the NARS Uniform Dialing Plan (UDP).
D. Youcannot shareRoute Lists,Digit Manipulation tables and Time-of-Day schedule withNARS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 An administrator is programming an NRS for the first time on a new Communication Server 1000
system RIS. 7.0 system. When attempting to add the Service Domain, it cannot be added as the Add
button is grayed out in the NRS.
Which tasked should you perform to resolve this issue?
A. reinstall the Signaling Server Software
B. reinstall the NRS software
C. switch from Standby database to Active database
D. switch from Active database to Standby database
Answer: D

Avaya test   7004.1   7004.1 original questions

NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Consider a company ¯ s d i a li ng p l an sho w n i n t he exh i b it and an exa m p l e f o r it s r equ ir e m en t s :
A station user at the company, with Location Code 221, placed an ESN call, dialing 7-221-2581. This
would be an On-Net call and the NARS programming must remove the LOC code and dial the DN
internally.
What programming would remove the location code for a call dialed within the originating Communication
Server 1000 to a DN on that same Communication Server 1000?
A. Each site would have its own Location Code programmed as a Home Location Code(HLOC) under
Translation Table #1 in their CS 1000.
B. The location codes for each site would be programmed under the LOC programming in Translation
Table #2 at all locations.
C. Home NPA Codes (HNPA) for each site would be programmed under Translation Table #1 at each
location in their CS 1000.
D. Each site would have the Location Codesfor all sites programmed as Home Location Codes (HLOC) in
Translation Table #1 of their CS 1000.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. Their sales
department is expanding and you have been asked to add Ave new telephones with the same capabilities
as the existing telephones in the department.
Which programming command should you use to complete this task.?
A. Move to DN
B. Move from TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR programming would allow a
user to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other 1-900 based number?
A. Table 1
B. Table 2
C. Table 3
D. Table 4
Answer: A

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has asked if the Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system can route anyone that dial an
unassigned number in the customer ¯ s D I D r ange t o t he A tt endan t.
In reviewing the current configuration as shown in the exhibit, what do you conclude?
(Choose two)
A. only internalstation users are routing to the Attendant
B. internal station users and non tie line users are routing to the Attendant
C. all caller types are receiving an overflow tone
D. NET_DATA Attendant and tie trunk users are receiving an overflow tone
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 3304
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Call Center Elite Implementation and Maintenance Exam )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 A call center operations manager wants agents to manually enter a code to identify the reason for being
in auxiliary (AUX) work status.
Which feature must be activated on the system-parameters custom-options to allow this?
A. Call Work Codes
B. Authorization Codes
C. Reason Codes
D. AUX State Codes
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two statements describe the benefits of the Business Advocate (BA) feature? (Choose two.)
A. It enablesrouting of calls to the agent that is most idle.
B. It dynamically matches a customer to an optimal agent.
C. It provides conditional routing of calls to agent queues.
D. It allows for dynamic reporting of call center activities in custom methods.
E. It uses advanced algorithms to efficiently route calls to agents.
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 Which three statements about circular hunt groups are true? (Choose three) A. The next call to the hunt
group is offered to the next station in the members list in a round robin fashion, starting with the first
administered station.
B. The call distribution is dependent of how long stations have been idle.
C. The call distribution is independent of how long stations have been idle.
D. The next tall to the hunt group will be routed to the next agent (station) if the previous agent did not
answer the last call.
E. The next call to the hunt-group will be routed to the same agent (station) if that agent did not answer
the last call.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 A supervisor wants to endure that a specified group of agents logout at a specified time during the work
week.
How can this be accomplished?
A. with After Call Work (ACW) Agent Considered Idle
B. with Forced Agent Logout Time
C. with Interruptible Aux Notification Timer (sec)
D. with Maximum Time Agent in ACW before logout (sec)
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are three added features when you upgrade form Basic Avaya Call Center to Avaya Call Center
Elite.? (Choose three.)
A. Service Level Maximize
B. Advocate
C. Hunt Group
D. Call Management System (CMS)
E. Agent Selection (EAS)
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 A customer has Business Advocate (BA) features turned on.
Which technique can be used to protect the predetermined level of service to a valued skill, II volumes or
agent staffing levels change abruptly?
A. queue priority levels
B. reserve agents
C. skill preference levels
D. percent allocation
Answer: D

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NO.7 What provides built-in real and historical reporting capabilities for the call center, including reports for
Splits/Skill, Agents, Vector Directory Numbers (VDNs) and trunk groups?
A. VvStats
B. Service level maximize (SLM)
C. Basic Call management System (BCMS)
D. Automated Number Identification (ANI)
Answer: C

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NO.8 While configuring the Service Observing feature, which three forms should be configured and/or
verified?
A. System Parameters
B. Class of Service
C. Feature-Related System Parameters
D. Class of restriction
E. Station
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.9 Which three monitor commands are available with Basic Call Management System (BCMS)? (Choose
three)
A. Monitor bcms agent
B. Monitor bcms skill
C. Monitor bcms split
D. Monitor bcms system
E. Monitor bcms vector
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 A supervisor would like to have their agents automatically log out at a specific time.
Which administration form is used to configure this functionality?
A. Hunt Group Form
B. Agent LoginID Form
C. Feature-Related System-Parameters Form
D. Station Form
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 3303
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Proactive Contact Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 Which hardware component is required for a hard dialer Proactive Contact 5.X.?
A. Avaya Application Enablement Services (AES) 3.1 or later
B. Avaya Enhanced Network Bus Controller (ENBC)
C. Avaya Communication Manager (CM) 3.1 or later
D. TN-744-based Call Classifier Cards version "e" or later
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does db_mgr script do?
A. It stops and starts the database
B. It copies calling lists to *.old.
C. It rolls up the daily data into monthly statistics.
D. It removes all old and outdated files from the system.
E. It runs a backup of the database to DVD.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A system supervisor uses Editor to create a new completion code for use in a Job that will run later in
the day. The job seems to start up without any problem, but when the supervisor looks at Monitor's Job
Completion Code view, no agents are releasing calls using the new code.
Which two Issues would contribute to this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The agents did not get the email describing the new completion code and the conditions for Itsuse.
B. The completion code changes are in the pending state and won't be available to agents until after the
next dialing application restart.
C. The Proactive Contact Agent application has not been updated to use the new completion code.
D. Monitor is not working properly. There should be at least a few calls with the new completion code.
E. The system supervisor forgot to add the new completion code to the agent keys file associated with the
job.
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 A system operator opens a Job Status view in the Avaya Proactive Contact Monitor and notices that
the status for job EXP100 is shown as Active, but the character-based Job Monitor no longer shows the
job as running. The system operator calls support and asks for an explanation.
Which three actions would you perform to begin troubleshooting the problem? (Choose three.)
A. Log on to the dialer and run check_db and check_mts.
B. Instruct the supervisor on how to generate debugging data in the cd.log file and ask the supervisor to
send you the output for analysis.
C. Tell the supervisor how to locate her personal directory and how to delete all the .cmv files foundthere.
D. Log on to the dialer and run sqlplus, and then enter the following query: SQL> select * from
mo_last_status;
E. Log on to the dialer and run sqlplus, and then enter the following query: SQL> select * from dialerdef;
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 A system supervisor calls support to report that when Job Agent view in Monitor is used, agents that are
on break cannot be seen.
What is the reason for this happening?
A. An agent who is on break is not really on a job. The supervisor should see that the agent is still on the
system by looking at a Dialer Agent view Instead.
B. The agents are exiting out of the Proactive Contact Agent (PC Agent) application rather than using the
"Go On Break" option in the PC Agent menu.
C. Display of agents who have used the "Go On Break" function of PC Agent application is not supported
in Monitor.
D. Monitor may not be configured to display agents who are on break.
E. An agent who has used the "Go On Break" function Is shown as "Off Job" in Monitor.
Answer: D

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NO.6 In Avaya Proactive Contact 5.0, which application can be used to enable/disable the Agent Job list
feature?
A. Agent Application
B. Command User Interface (System Telnet)
C. Analyst
D. Editor
Answer: B

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NO.7 A system operator needs to see failed login attempts on the Avaya Proactive Contact 5.X dialer. Which
login type must be used to see these failed attempts?
A. sysadm
B. system
C. auditor
D. reporter
Answer: C

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NO.8 On the Avaya Proactive Contact Analyst application, which section shows you Non-Contact and Error
summary reports?
A. Agent
B. Job
C. Administrative
D. Agent Monthly
Answer: B

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NO.9 A business has a three dialer pod (one primary and two secondary) and ten supervisor workstations.
How many Java processes should be running while checking mid-tier services (check_mts)?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 10
D. 13
E. 14
Answer: A

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NO.10 What should the crontab of a secondary dialer have?
A. pds_maintenance
B. pds_maintenance and db_rnaintenance
C. pds_maintenance and mts_maintenance
D. pds_maintenance, mts_maintenance and db_mainlenance
Answer: B

Avaya   3303 questions   3303   3303

NO.11 A system is logging errors on a porter process during every reboot/restart of Proactive Contact. Which
two parameters, if mismatched, would cause this? (Choose two.)
A. PORTSinmaster, cfg
B. OPERATORS in master, cfg
C. MAXHIDSLOTS in master, cfg
D. H specified ports configuredindgswitch.cfg
E. N specified ports configured in dgswitch.cfg
Answer: A,E

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NO.12 To configure the opt-out feature for a virtual job, you need to select the check-box against "Should 'opt
outs' be enabled". This enables other configuration parameters for this feature.
Which three configuration parameters are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Opt-out Digit: 5
B. When an opt-out happens, transfer to .. : Transfer to a VDN
C. Message to be played when opt-out fails : 1
D. When opt-out happens, transfer to : Transfer to an outbound job
E. Opt out Digit: #
Answer: A,B,C

Avaya   3303   3303   3303 test answers

NO.13 A system operator reports that agents are randomly being disconnected from Proactive Contact Agent.
You have reviewed the available data and it is inconclusive. Since the problem is intermittent, you need to
set up the dialer so that it will gather the data you need in the future.
Assuming that the current date is February 19, 2011, which command would you enter in the hopes of
recording the next occurrence?
A. tail-facc*0219
B. check_errors 20110219
C. logadm -p opmon |7
D. logcat -p agent
Answer: C

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NO.14 A Job is running on Avaya Proactive Contact 5.0 and the system operator notices that not enough
records are selected. The operator wants to change selection criteria to select more records and re-run
the call selection without stopping the job.
How can this be achieved?
A. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Monitor.
B. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Editor.
C. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Command User Interface (CUI).
D. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Analyst.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which three should you verify if a network connection error is suspected between the Avaya Proactive
Contact 5.X server and the PG230RM? (Choose three.)
A. Run lanscan and landiag and look for collisions and other errors on the internal network (lan0).
B. Verify the name (switch1) and IP address for the PG230RM matches between the /etc/hosts onthe
AvayaProactiveContact server and in the Network Configuration page on the PG230RM (under the
Current Internet Address).
C. Verify that SWITCHTYPE is set to DIGITAL in /opt/avaya/pds/etc/master.cfg on the Avaya Proactive
Contact server.
D. Verify you have an active flashing LED light on the front of the ENBC card indicating LAN activity.
E. Verify that there are four swif_dg processes running on the Avaya Proactive Contact server.
Answer: A,B,E

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Exam Code: 3000-2
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Total Q&A: 103 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 Which two cards can give the IP500 control unit the full ability to interface to a T1/E1
ISDN trunk
without additional licenses? (Choose two.)
A. IP 500 PRI U
B. Voice Compression Module
C. ISDN U
D. PRI 24/30
E. Legacy Carrier Card
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 A client requests VoiceMail Pro with UMS to be installed. During the installation
process the option for
UMS does not appear.
What is the cause?
A. The UMS service is installed automatically.
B. The UMS licenses have not been loaded.
C. The server platform does not meet the requirements.
D. The Windows account does not have permission.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two licenses are required to support an Interactive Voice Response (IVR) and
Text To Speech
(TTS) enabled auto attendant? (Choose two.)
A. IP Office Essential System license
B. IP Office Preferred System license
C. IP Office Advanced System license
D. VMPro TTS (Generic)
E. Database license
Answer: B,C

Avaya   3000-2   3000-2

NO.4 Which two are power options for IP telephones on the IP Office? (Choose two.)
A. Class "B" 24 Volt power supply
B. 1151D1 Individual Power Supply and the 1151D2 Individual Power Supply with Battery
Backup
C. Class "A" 24 volt power supply
D. Power over Ethernet switch conforming to 802.3af standards
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 A customer is running SIP phones that are locked down to G.729a.
What is the bandwidth used for the speech of ten simultaneous calls?
A. 63 Kbps
B. 80 Kbps
C. 560 Kbps
D. 640 Kbps
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has opened up another location in London that will have four employees
and wants to SCN
this site with the current location in New York City which has an IP500 that has been installed
for over a
year without any software revisions.
Which two solutions do you recommend for the London location? (Choose two.)
A. Install the IP500 with the VCM 32 and the 12 port Ethernet switch on a UPS, ground the
IP500,
upgrade the IP500 to the same version as the IP500 in New York City, install four digital
phones, and
verify the correct software version on the phones.
B. Install the IP500 with VCM 32, add a digital station module on the IP500, Put the IP500
and the DS
module on a UPS, earth ground the IP500 and the digital station module, match the IP500
and DS
module with the version level with New York City and install the four digital phones.
C. Install four digital phones and create a VPN connection between London and New York
City for the
digital phones to connect back to the digital station module in New York City.
D. Install the IP500 with the VCM 32 on a UPS, a 12 port POE switch on a UPS, earth
ground the IP500,
match the IP Office version level with New York City, install four IP Phones, and verify the
correct
software version on the IP phones.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 A customer has opened up a new location in London that will have four employees.
They want to SCN
this site with the current location in New York City which has an IP500 that has been installed
for over a
year without any software revisions. The employees in London will use the New York City
location for all
outbound and inbound calls and want to be able to dial any extension at either location.
What should you recommend for this customer?
A. Install an IP500 with four digital phones in London and use short codes to dial across the
H.323 IP
trunk to connect back to New York City.
B. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in London and create a VPN connection between
London and New
York City with firewalls at both locations using double network address translations.
C. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in London and use the H.323 IP trunk for a SCN to
connect back to
New York City to dial out of New York City.
D. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in New York City and use the H.323 IP trunk for a
SCN to connect
back to London to dial out of London.
Answer: C

Avaya test questions   3000-2   3000-2   3000-2

NO.8 Call routing in a multi site SCN solution needs careful planning to prevent which three.?
(Choose three.)
A. VCM resources are not over subscribed.
B. VMPro ports are not over subscribed.
C. Trunk ports are not over subscribed.
D. ACD routes are not compromised.
E. Calls are not tromboned.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 Which three requirements are collected during the Infrastructure Data Gathering
phase? (Choose
three.)
A. Productivity Requirements
B. Physical Layer: Existing Telecom Infrastructure
C. Above Physical Layer: Existing Data Network
D. Line of Business application integration needs
E. Current PBX/Key System Features and Dial Plan
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.10 A customer is requesting space required for an IP500 and expansion modules. IT says
that they have
12U space (2U = 73mm / 2.9") available in their rack. 35 DS phones and 30 analog phones
are required.
The customer also has one analog trunk. In case of power failure, one analog phone has to
ring. The
VMPRO server takes 4U space on the rack.
What is the minimum space required for the IP Office?
A. 2U
B. 6U
C. 8U
D. 12U
Answer: B

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NO.11 You need to implement the new tourist information center (TIC) in Milan. The
requirement is to have an
Auto Attendant that can supply up to three levels (caller can choose option 1, then 2, and
finally option 3)
for 10 different information groups such as City Guides, "points of view", Hotels with available
room, etc.
An additional requirement is to have the voicemail to email option for all people working at
the TIC of
Milan.
Which IP Office version will meet these requirements for the least cost?
A. IP Office Preferred Edition
B. IP Office Preferred Edition and IP Office Advanced Edition
C. IP Office Essential Edition
D. IP Office Advanced Edition
E. IP Office Basic Edition
Answer: C

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NO.12 Your customer has requested that you implement a plan to give their two sites
complete resiliency.
Which two will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. IP Office Resiliency License
B. IP Phones with backup call server
C. IP500v2 with redundant processor
D. Preferred Edition
Messaging at both locations
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 The design for an IP Office has two locations. They will need phones, voicemail, and
meet me
conferencing ability. They will have a PRI at the main office and the remote office will also
use it for
inbound and outbound calls. The main site has forty users and one fax machine. The remote
site has
fifteen users and one fax machine.
Which cards and modules are required in the IP Office at the main site to support all digital
phones?
A. IP500 Preferred edition, three Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal
PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module
B. IP500 Essential edition, three Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal
PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module
C. IP500 Essential edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32,
Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module
D. IP500 Preferred edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32,
Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which supported hardware is needed to protect an analog extension port that is in a
different building
than the control unit?
A. ITWLinx towerMAX DS/2
B. Analog surge protector
C. ITWLinx towerMAX SCL/8
D. IP Office Barrier Box
Answer: D

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NO.15 In Windows Services, which tab would you use to allow the VoiceMail Pro service to
run as a specific
user?
A. General
B. Advanced
C. Log On
D. Dependencies
E. User
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 6201-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Contact Center on Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager and Avaya Call Management System Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 Which two CommunicationManagerfeatures does the VALcircuit pack support? (Choose two.)
A. Music-an-hold
B. Voice over IP
C. Integrated Announcements
D. Local Announcements
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 A customer has purchased 5200 agent licenses and each agent has been assigned at least 3 skills.
Which two values would be a valid Data Storage Allocation entry for "Maximumagents lagged in"?
(Choose two)
A. 10400
B. 15600
C. 100000
D. 500000
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 The Quick Credit call center opened at 8 a.m. on the Friday, the day after a holiday By8:30, the
customer service line had received 6 customercomplaints all1 stemming from calls to the center the day
before. Callers complained thatthey received the all agents are busy
recording but regardlesshow long
they waited, were never answered.
What caused callers to be queued even though the Quick Credit call center was closed onthe holiday?
A. The Communication Manager was down.
B. An agentforgotto log out.
C. The holiday recording was not functioning properly.
D. The holiday was not administered in the holiday tablet
Answer: B

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NO.4 Click theexhibit button
A Miami basedmedical center is defining evacuation procedures for severe weather conditions The center
has decided to plan for two types evacuations, major and minor During a minor evacuation; the center
willstaff only a few medical answer line agents to answer critical callsmajor evacuation the answer line will
not be staffed instead of reaching alive agent, callers willreceive a pre-recordedinformation
Inthe example vector segment, what is represented by the Ein steps 2 and 3?
A. E is a standard vector code for evacuation
B. E has been administered as a Feature Access Code
C. Ehas a vector variable that is changed when an evacuation is required
D. E is assigned to a VDN that routes calls to an evacuation vector
Answer: D

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NO.5 Toactivate, which three options require an Avaya authorization password? (Choose three)
A. simultaneous CMS Supervisor logins
B. the number of agents thatthe CMS can report on
C. the number of users that can be administered in the CMS
D. the number of ACDs thatthe CMS system can monitor
E. features assigned to each user
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 A technician integratesthecustomer snetwork and links the CM reference between CM and CMS is
greater than 24 hours.
Whatcan be done to fix the problem?
A. Shutdown the CMS to the ak prompt level and adjust the BIOS time.
B. Run the script /cms/install/autotime to synchronize the Communication Manager's time to the CMS
C. In. CMS, login as root and use the /cms/datesync command to sync the CMS and CM time.
D. FromSolarislogin as root and use the date command
Answer: B

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NO.7 In an active non-Expert agent selection (AES) environment, what is each hunt group known as?
A. Agent
B. Split
C. Skill
D. Vector
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer needs helpwith maintaining service leveltargets.
Which Advocate feature will make automated adjustments to overload settings?`
A. Dynamic Threshold Adjustment
B. Service Objective
C. Dynamic Percent Allocation
D. Vector Queuing Priorities
Answer: A

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NO.9 When connecting the service PC to S8800, the cable connects the System Management Ethernet
connector port.
Which port is used when hooking the monitor to the CMS T5220?
A. SER MGT Port
B. NET MGT Port
C. NET 1Port
D. XVR-300XB port
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer just upgraded their CMS to releaseR16 from release Rt4. Theswitch is releaseCM4 and is
not going to be upgraded to CM 6untilnextweek
When the switch is upgraded,what needs to happen before the link will come up using theCM6 protocol?
A. Only the reporting adjunct in the switch needs to be changed to R16 CMS.
B. Only the switch release in the CMS needs to be changed to CM6.
C. Both the reporting adjunctthe switch and the switch release in the CMS need to be updated
D. It is not necessary fareither the reporting adjunct orthe switch release to change.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 6102-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Virtual Services Platform 9000 Implementation Exam)
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Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which command can be used to determine the management IPv6 address on the
Virtual Services
Platform (VSP) O000?
A. Show interfaces mgmtEthernet 1/1
B. Show ip interface vrf mgmtRouter
C. Show ipv6 interface vrf mgmtRouter
D. Show ipv6 address interface
Answer: D

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NO.3 A Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 chassis has the following connections:
Four 10GBaseER core connections in ports 3/4 , 3/8, 4/4, 4/8 (9024XL cards)
40 Copper 100BaseT connections for server aggregation (9048GT card)
How many Switch Fabric (SF) modules need to be installed in the roar of the chassis to
ensure that all of
the IO cards operate at full performance, even if a single SF modules fails (n + 1 SF
redundancy)?
A. Install three SFs in St modules 1, 2, 4.
B. Install four SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4.
C. Install five SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
D. Install six SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is used by the IP Multicast router, to
learn about the
existence of host group members on their directly attached subnets.
Which statement about IGMP is true?
A. The IP Multicast routers get this information by listening for IP hosts broadcasting IGMP
queries and
reporting their host group memberships.
B. The IP Multicast routers get this information by broadcasting IGMP queries and listening
for IP hosts
reporting their host group memberships.
C. The IP Multicast routers get this information by recognizing the modified MAC address of a
Multicast
packet and adding that MAC address to the Multicast tree.
D. The IP Multicast routers get this information by listening for Multicast Servers broadcasting
IGMP
queries and listening for IP hosts reporting their host group memberships.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A Split Multi Link Trunking (SMIT) for switch clustering is being configured.
Which statement is a configuration requirement for the SMIT?
A. The CP-Limit is configured on edge switch stacks.
B. VLANs that are defined on the SMLT are also defined on the tote IST.
C. Neighboring edge switch stacks should be connected to each other via the DMLT
connection to add
resilient paths in the event of an SMLT failure.
D. Alternate the primary path of the SMLT connection Lo load balance the switch core.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which types of packets will port mirroring not capture.?
A. Packets that are dropped on the ingress MAC
B. Packets that are destined for the standby CP
C. Packets that are properly forwarded through the VSP
D. Packets that have a destination address of 255.255.255.255
Answer: A

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NO.7 Avaya recommends that the Switch Fabric (SF) modules be installed in both Slot SF1
and Slot SF4.
What is the reason behind this recommendation?
A. It provides optimal load balancing between the SF modules.
B. It provides redundancy tor the bandwidth management.
C. It takes full advantage of the orthogonal midplane architecture.
D. It provides redundancy in case of a power supply failure.
E. It provides lossless SF failover.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in
the existing
Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 core. The technician needs to configure VRF on the
VSP 9000.
Which statement represents the proper order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Create a new VLAN, add an IP address, create a VRF, and move the VLAN to the new
VRF.
B. Create a VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the VLAN to the new
VRF.
C. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address, and move the VLAN to the new
VRF.
D. Create VRF, create a new VLAN, move the VLAN to the new VRF, and add an IP
address.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two management ports are available on the CP module? (Choose two.)
A. Serial interface
B. USB (host) interface
C. Ethernet interface
D. Modem interface
Answer: A,D

Avaya   6102-1   6102-1 test questions

NO.10 Given the following ACL applied to an interface:
filter acl ace 1 5 name "xxxx" filter acl ace action 1 5 deny
filter acl ace ip 1 5 ip-protocol-type eq tcp
filter acl ace protocol 1 5 dst-port eq 23
filter acl ace 1 5 enable
What is the result of this filter?
A. permit telnet traffic
B. deny ftp traffic
C. permit only tcp traffic
D. deny telnet traffic
E. deny only tcp traffic
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 6209
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Contact Center CCT and Multimedia Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 53 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 A technician has installed Communication Control Toolkit (CCT). Which three elements are added to the
event viewer? (Choose three)
A. NCCT Call Log
B. NCCT Security
C. NCCT Audit Log
D. NCCT Error Log
E. NCCT System Log
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 A network drive is being mapped that will be used to setup the Contact Center Multimedia database.
The following information is provided:
-The Contact Center Multimedia server name is CCMM001
-The Contact Center Multimedia server IP address is 192.167.140.15
-The backup server name is backup004
-The backup server IP address is 192.167.140.20
-The backup folder name is dbbackup
What is the UNC path for the mapped network drive.?
A. \192.167.140.15\dbbackup
B. \CCMM001\dbbackup
C. \192.167.140.20\dbbackup
D. \dbbackup\backup004
Answer: B

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NO.3 An agent with Avaya Aura Agent Desktop cannot log into the Contact Center. The technician needs to
verify network connectivity from the agent PC to the Contact Center Multimedia server.
Which command is used to verify the physical network connection between agent PC to the CCMM
server?
A. Arp
B. Ping
C. Tracert
D. Ipconfig
Answer: B

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NO.4 The technician has installed a Contact Center multimedia (CCMM)email and web services to the
Contact Center solution.
What do the customers email and web server connect to?
A. Customer LAN
B. Contact Center Server Subnet
C. Customer server ELAN
D. Contact Center Server ELAN
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have installed Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) and need to add the CCT server in the Contact
Center Administration (CCMA) web interface and associate it to a Contact Center Manager Server
(CCMS). After adding the CCT server, you are unable to associate it with the CCMS, what is a problem
with this installation?
A. No CCT users have been created
B. The CCT server does not have valid licenses
C. The CCT server has not been added in CCMA
D. Open Queue has not been enabled on the CCMS
Answer: D

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NO.6 A technician is adding an agent in the Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) utility. But no
option to add Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) user account details is presented.
What option must be taken to solve this problem?
A. The agent user type must be set to supervisor agent
B. Enter the SIP address of the agent ­ t he vo i ce u ri se r ve r
C. The Create CCT agent
option must be selected
D. The agent first and last name must be populated
Answer: C

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NO.7 A technician has installed Contact Center Multimedia (CCMM) within the Contact Center environment.
Multimedia skillsets must be defined in the Contact Center Administration (CCMA) for multimedia routing
to occur.
What name convention differentiates multimedia skillsets from voice skillsets?
A. Add a multimedia suffix to the skillset name
B. Add a multimedia prefix to the skillset name
C. Add a multimedia disposition code to the skillset name
D. Add multimedia to the skillset name.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A technician has been asked to generate outbound and multimedia reports based on data stored
within the Contact Center Multimedia (CCMM) database. The technician must also access multimedia
data sources through the Report Creation Wizard for reporting customization. The CCMM server has
been added to the Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA).
Which additional step is required to complete this task?
A. Assign the CCMM server as a reporting server for the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
B. Add the Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) server to theCCMA
C. Add the Microsoft Exchange server to the CCMA
D. Assign the CCT server as a reporting server for the CCMS
Answer: A

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NO.9 The technician needs to install an Avaya Aura Contact center in a co-resident configuration to support a
contact center with less than 200 agents or less than 12000 calls per hour. The Contact Center Support
Multimedia Outbound and Universal Networking. The co-resident applications link through Contact Center
Manager Server, License Manager, Contact Center Manager infrastructure, Communication Control
Toolkit, Contact Center Multimedia, Server Utility and Avaya Media Server. For this installation, what is the
drive letter and size of the hard disk partition required for the Avaya Aura Contact Center application?
A. C:\ and 60 GB
B. D:\ and 80 GB
C. E:\ and 120 GB
D. F:\ and 300 GB
Answer: B

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NO.10 Where can the settings are configured for the inbound mail handler (IMH) such as the time between
intervals?
A. Through the Contact Center Manager Administration Network Configurations screen
B. Through the email server
C. Through the Outbound Campaign Manager
D. Through the Multimedia Administrator
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 132-S-900-7
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya IP Telephony Design Elective Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 77 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 Which of the following does a typical Cisco design include?
A. Right to Use for Call Manager
B. Right to Use for Growth
C. Right to Use for Phones
D. Right to Use for Redundancy
Answer: C

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NO.2 The customer plans to add remote IP users when they implement VoIP on their network.
What information about the customer's data network do you need to know to verify that remote
users can be supported? (Choose three.)
A. codec administration
B. network region for each remote user
C. applications the remote user will be using
D. bandwidth the remote user will have access to
E. the average round trip between the VPN users and the voice network
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.3 Within an S8500 Server, 25 IP telephony endpoints are simultaneously connected to 10 digital
sets, 10 IP sets, and 5 CO trunks.
How many DSPs are in use if G.711 is incorporated?
A. 15
B. 25
C. 30
D. 50
Answer: A

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NO.4 What needs to be considered at an Enterprise Survivability Server (ESS) location when
implementing an agent recording solution?
A. H.323 trunks
B. locally sourced announcements
C. Application Enablement Services (AES)
D. Separation of Bearer and Signaling (SBS)
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two recommendations of a network assessment allow Avaya IP phones to boot up
properly with dynamic addressing? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP Site Specific Option 167 being set up correctly
B. DHCP Site Specific Option 176 being set up correctly
C. using Fast Spanning Tree Protocol (FSTP) at the port level
D. turning off Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at the switch level
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Your client is planning to implement IP Telephony on their recently installed S8500. y will have
local IP sets and IP connected remote users (IP Softphone). In addition, they need connectivity to a
limited-bandwidth WAN between headquarters and their manufacturing plant. The client is
interested in setting up network regions.
What are three reasons to consider network regions in your overall design? (Choose three.)
A. to associate parameters such as codecs and locations to groups of IP endpoints
B. to provide IP endpoints certain mandatory use of resources that belong in the same region as the
endpoint
C. to provide IP endpoints certain preference to use resources that belong in the same region as the
endpoint
D. to associate IP endpoints with a type of signaling resource (CLANS) to load balance registration
among the CLANS in multiple regions
E. to associate IP endpoints with a type of signaling resource (CLANS) to load balance registration
among the CLANS in the same region
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.7 A client is implementing an S87xx Media Server with several G650 Media Gateways. y are
concerned with overheating in the equipment room, especially in the equipment power units.
Which two conditions cause a G650 power supply to initiate an emergency shutdown? (Choose two.)
A. overvoltage
B. overheating
C. undervoltage
D. high humidity
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 You are developing IP Telephony bandwidth requirements for WAN traffic between two S87xx
sites. The client estimates that simultaneous non-IP Telephony traffic will occupy 1.5 Mbps. In
addition, they estimate that using G.729, 55 simultaneous IP calls need to be provided access to the
WAN link.
What estimated bandwidth will the IP Telephony traffic add to the WAN traffic?
A. 1.5 Mbps
B. 275 Kbps
C. 1650 Kbps
D. 4675 Kbps
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer has two sites connected over a 512k serial WAN link. There are 40 employees at
the main site and 20 employees at the remote site. Since the server bank and all trunks terminate at
the main location, the customer has concerns about the bandwidth over the WAN link. They
request a network assessment.
Which two design considerations are pertinent to the bandwidth on the WAN link? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN capable Ethernet switch
B. telecommuters using IP Softphone to access network resources
C. number of voice calls going through the WAN link during peak time
D. graphic-based programs used on the network between the two sites
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 An Avaya customer with a large contact center is IP enabling their S87xx and will allow 25
users to work from home via IP Agent in the Telecommuter mode.
What is the minimum hardware required in the S87xx to provide this application?
A. one CLAN board only
B. one Media Processor board only
C. one CLAN and one Media Processor board
D. no hardware is required, only software.
Answer: A

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