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Exam Code: ST0-149
Exam Name: Symantec (Storage Foundation and HA 6.0 Windows Technical Assessment )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 171 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which benefit specific to Campus clusters does Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Windows offer?
A. storage live migration
B. extended attributes
C. replicated data
D. site aware allocation
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which utility is used to back up the private region?
A. vxcbr
B. vxsnap
C. vxassist
D. vxdg
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are the two site-based allocations for the site-aware allocation feature? (Select two.)
A. site-separated allocation
B. site-based allocation
C. site-specific allocation
D. site-confined allocation
E. site-campus allocation
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which disk group type is required for Veritas Storage Foundation for Windows to work with a Microsoft
Failover Cluster?
A. Cluster Dynamic disk group
B. Private Dynamic disk group
C. Secondary Dynamic disk group
D. Primary Dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the recommended number of NICs per system to configure a two node cluster?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which utility is used to determine whether a network adapter maintains its connection status in a
system-defined variable?
A. getmac
B. getcomms
C. NICTest
D. ping
Answer: C

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NO.7 Solutions for which application are available in the Storage Foundation - High Availability Solution
Configuration Center?
A. Microsoft Hyper-V
B. Symantec Enterprise Vault
C. Symantec NetBackup
D. VMware vSphere
Answer: B

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NO.8 An application is under maintenance for a application update on Server2. The application administrator
wants Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) to keep the application running on Server2, but fault the service group
and resource if a resource faults. Which service group attribute can accomplish this?
A. Priority
B. Evacuate
C. Frozen
D. Load
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which agent is used to configure high availability for a cluster aware application service if a specific
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) agent is unavailable?
A. Proxy agent
B. GenericService agent
C. Process agent
D. ServiceMonitor agent
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which MountV resource attribute should be set to reduce failover time?
A. AutoFSClean
B. CheckFSAccess
C. PurgeStaleMountPoints
D. ForceUnmount
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which feature is available when Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) is configured in secure mode?
A. SSL to encrypt communication between cluster nodes
B. a single sign-on mechanism to connect to a cluster
C. an isolated and secure environment for running applications
D. root broker configured in a stand-alone system outside cluster
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which command is used to validate recent changes made to the cluster configuration?
A. hasys -verify
B. haconf -verify
C. hacf -verify
D. hastatus verify
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which process enables the renaming of an imported dynamic disk group named DGName in Veritas
Enterprise Administrator?
A. right-click on disk group object DGName, select rename Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
B. select disk group object DGName, press F2, enter new name
C. right-click on disk object DGName, select Deport Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
D. select disk group object DGName, select Import Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the minimum permission required to install Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability
Solutions 6.0 for Windows.?
A. Domain Administrator
B. Local Administrator
C. Domain Operator
D. Local User
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the minimum amount of memory required to make Microsoft Hyper-V virtual machines highly
available with Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows?
A. 2GB
B. 3GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the default load balancing setting for the Dynamic Multi-Pathing (DMP) Active/Active mode?
A. Balanced Path
B. Round-robin
C. Weighted Paths
D. Least Blocks
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are two different ways to perform an upgrade for a Veritas cluster? (Select two.)
A. parallel upgrade
B. offline upgrade
C. online upgrade
D. rolling upgrade
E. tiered upgrade
Answer: A,D

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NO.18 Which two system components are verified during a pre-installation check for Veritas Storage
Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows? (Select two.)
A. shared disk storage compatibility
B. total physical memory
C. aggregate CPU performance
D. Active Directory
E. available installation disk space
Answer: B,E

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NO.19 Which feature is used to improve initial mirror synchronization time?
A. FastResync
B. SmartSnap
C. FastSync
D. SmartMove
Answer: D

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NO.20 An administrator is designing a cluster in a Microsoft Windows environment with three systems. Two of
the systems are on the 192.168.4.0 Class C public network. The third system is on the
192.169.0.0 Class B public network. The administrator needs to have Microsoft Windows clients access
the service groups independent of the system on which they are running. Which feature or change must
be incorporated into the design?
A. use the Lanman resource in each service group
B. change the servers so they all reside on the same subnet
C. change the servers so they all use the same subnet class
D. use the subnet resource in each service group
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-173
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for UNIX Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A company expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.5 environment by adding a new media server. What
is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media server
information?
A. run the update_all_clients script
B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script
C. run the install_bp script
D. run the install_client_files script
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which script moves client software to a remote UNIX client from a UNIX master server?
A. ftp_to_client
B. install_client_files
C. client_config
D. send_client_files
E. update_client
Answer: B

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NO.3 A Symantec NetBackup administrator configures a Standardpolicy type for synthetic backups. What is
required for a successful Synthetic Full if the client is offline?
A. successful traditional Full and Synthetic Incremental backup
B. bring the client online, successful traditional Full and Incremental backup
C. bring the client online, successful traditional Full and Synthetic Incremental backup
D. successful traditional Full and Incremental backup
Answer: D

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NO.4 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator needs to prevent all client systems from performing
user-directed restore operations, while maintaining the client administrator's ability to view the contents of
backup images. How should the administrator proceed?
A. add DISALLOW_CLIENT_RESTORE to the Symantec NetBackup configuration settings on the client
systems
B. select the Allow browse only parameter for the clients included in the Client Attributes of the master
server Host Properties
C. select the Allow client browse parameter in the Host Properties of the client system
D. deselect the Allow client restore parameter in the Host Properties of the master server system
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two tasks does the catalog backup perform? (Select two.)
A. ensures the catalog backup is created in a safe location
B. automatically assigns tapes to the CatalogBackup pool
C. appends to existing data on tape
D. backs up the catalog only when there are no client backups in progress
E. copies the NBDB to a staging area before backing it up
Answer: C,E

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NO.6 The configuration parameters MIN_GB_SIZE_PER_DUPLICATION_JOB and
IMAGE_EXTENDED_RETRY_PERIOD_IN_HOURS are part of the configuration for which feature?
A. Catalog Replication
B. Disk Staging
C. Storage Lifecycle Policy
D. NetBackup Vault
Answer: C

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NO.7 Four jobs enter the Symantec NetBackup 7.5 job queue simultaneously. All jobs require the same
resources and there are resources available to run only one job at a time. All master server Host
Properties are set to default values, as are the attributes of the policies associated with the jobs. Of the
four jobs, which job will run last?
A. Backup job
B. Restore job
C. Import job
D. Duplication job
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which default Windows Open File Backup method is used during a backup for a newly installed
Symantec NetBackup 7.5 Windows 2003 client.?
A. VERITAS Snapshot Provider (VSP)
B. Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)
C. snapshot provider configured in Global Client Attribute
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which command is used to manually register a new media server with the database on the master
server?
A. nbemmcmd
B. nbdevconfig
C. bpminlicense
D. bpsetconfig
Answer: A

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NO.10 A backup job failed. The backup administrator needs to collect log files for the services and daemons
that use Unified-style logging. Which step must be performed by the backup administrator before sending
the collected log files to Symantec technical support for analysis?
A. create log directories for the Symantec NetBackup services and daemons
B. set the Global logging level setting to a value of 5
C. run nbsu on the master server
D. run nbcplogs on the master server
Answer: D

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NO.11 A Symantec NetBackup administrator configures a policy to perform file system backups of multiple
client systems using the Allow multiple data streams feature. All other policy attributes are at default
settings. Which master server parameter must be configured to enable the backup jobs from a client to
run concurrently?
A. Target storage unit: Maximum concurrent jobs
B. Global Attributes: Maximum jobs per client
C. Global Attributes: Maximum backup copies
D. Target storage unit: Enable multiplexing
Answer: B

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NO.12 An organization plans to upgrade its master server to Symantec NetBackup 7.5. A Symantec
NetBackup media server is being used to perform a backup of the catalog. Which Symantec NetBackup
version or versions are supported on the media server performing the catalog backup?
A. 6.5, 7.0, or 7.1
B. 7.5 only
C. 7.1 or 7.5 only
D. 7.0, 7.1, or 7.5
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which types of information are backed up by a cumulative incremental backup schedule?
A. files and folders that have changed since the last differential incremental, cumulative incremental, or
full backup
B. files and folders that have changed since the last cumulative incremental or full backup
C. files and folders that have changed since the last full backup
D. files that have changed since the last incremental or full backup
Answer: C

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NO.14 An organization needs to automatically back up a server's data every other Sunday with a backup start
window from 7:00 PM to 10:00 PM. It is expected that manual backups will never be run. How can this
backup schedule be configured to ensure it runs every other Sunday at 7:00 PM?
A. Schedule type: Calendar Calendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 1st and 3rd Sunday
B. Schedule type: Calendar Calendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 2nd and 4th Sunday
C. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 2 weeks
D. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 13 days
Answer: D

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NO.15 An organization is installing a Symantec NetBackup 7.5 master server and the license key is
unavailable during the installation process. What will be the result of the installation?
A. All features will be enabled for a 30-day evaluation period.
B. Only core functionality will be enabled.
C. Installation of the master server will fail.
D. Symantec NetBackup services will fail to start on the master server until a license key is installed.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 510-025
Exam Name: Sybase (Adaptive Server Enterprise 15.0 Administrator Associate Exam)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 During the installation, which of the following databases are created on the master device? (Choose 2)
A.dbccdb
B.model
C.sybsecurity
D.sybsystemprocs
E.tempdb
Answer: be

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NO.2 Given that the following set of commands are executed in a 2k server:
sp_cacheconfig mycache, 100M,
go
sp_poolconfig mycache, 50M, 4K
go
sp_poolconfig mycache, 10M, 16K, 4K
go
Which of the following are TRUE? (Choose 2)
A. mycache is 40M
B.4K buffer pool is 50M
C.4k buffer pool is 40M
D.2K buffer pool is 50M
E.no 2K buffer pool
Answer: cd

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NO.3 If a transaction places an update lock on a data page, what type of lock will a second transaction get if
it attempts to read the data using a SELECT statement?
A.Another UPDATE lock
B.SHARED lock
C.EXCLUSIVE lock
D.No lock is placed as process will be blocked
Answer: b

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NO.4 To determine if a configuration parameter is static or dynamic run ___________ specifying the
parameter name. (Choose 2)
A.sp_help
B.sp_configure
C.sp_helpconfig
D.sp_monitorconfig
E.sp_monitorX
Answer: bc

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NO.5 Given that the following commands are successfully executed:
use mydb
go
select * into #myusers from sysusers
go
In which database does #myusers exist?
A.master
B.model
C.mydb
D.tempdbX
Answer: d

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NO.6 Which of the following databases is used to store Job Scheduler information?
A.sybmigratedb
B.sybmgmtdb
C.sybsecurity
D.sybsystemdb
Answer: b

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NO.7 Which of the following are true about using the load database command?(Choose 3)
A.the database must be at least as large as the size of the database dump
B.the database must have been created with the for load option
C.the database must be exactly the same size as the database dump
D.the database must not be in use
E.the database need not exist because load database will create the database
F.the database must not be marked as suspect
Answer: adf

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NO.8 Which system database is used to store distributed transaction management data?
A.sybsystemprocs
B.model
C.sybsystemdb
D.sybsecurity
Answer: c

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NO.9 Which of the following databases are required for an Adaptive Server installation? (Choose 2)
A.sybsyntax
B.sybsystemdb
C.sybmgmtdb
D.sybsecurity
E.sybsytemprocs
F.dbccdb
Answer: be

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NO.10 Which of the following system databases will be built during an ASE installation? (Choose 4)
A.master
B.model
C.sybsyntax
D.sybsecurity
E.sybsystemdb
F.sybsystemprocs
Answer: abef

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NO.11 Which system database controls the behavior of distributed transactions?
A.master
B.sybsecurity
C.sybsystemdb
D.sybsystemprocs
E.tempdb
Answer: c

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NO.12 Which of the following statements are true regarding procedure cache size? (Choose 3)
A.Procedure cache size is specified as percentage of the available memory.
B.Procedure cache size is specified as absolute value of the available memory.
C.Procedure cache size is a static parameter.
D.Procedure cache size is a dynamic parameter.
E.Procedure cache size is specified in units of logical pages (2, 4, 8, or 16K).
F.Procedure cache size is specified in units of 2k pages.X
Answer: bdf

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NO.13 Which alter table clause will change an APL table to allow row level locking?
A.lock datarows
B.lock datapages
C.lock allpages
D.with fillfactor = 1
Answer: a

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NO.14 When sizing additional network memory, how many packets does each connection require?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Answer: b

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NO.15 To allow dirty reads, which of the following should be executed?
A.SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL 3
B.SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL 0
C.HOLDLOCK
D.NOHOLDLOCK
Answer: b

Sybase   510-025   510-025   510-025

NO.16 What are the partition strategies that allow you to add partitions using alter table? (Choose 2)
A.hash
B.list
C.range
D.round robin
Answer: bc

Sybase   510-025   510-025   510-025   510-025

NO.17 Cursors can now be declared as which of the following? (Choose 4)
A. scrollable
B. forward_only
C. backward_only
D. non-scrollable
E. insensitive
F. semi-sensitive
Answer: adef

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NO.18 Which commands can be used to specify the number of histogram steps in systatistics? (Choose 2)
A.create index
B.optdiag
C.update statistics
D.reorg
E.sp_modifystats
Answer: ac

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NO.19 Which of the following utility programs are capable of reverse engineering table definitions? (Choose
2)
A.bcp
B.ddlgen
C.optdiag
D.srvbuild
E.Sybase Central
Answer: be

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NO.20 Which command can be used with "static options" to list all the static server configuration options?
A.sp_configure
B.sp_helpconfig
C.sp_monitorconfig
D.sp_poolconfig
E.sp_dboption
Answer: b

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Exam Code: 310-090
Exam Name: SUN (Sun Certified Business Component Developer for J2EE 1.3)
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Total Q&A: 409 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which is a feature of EJB 2.0?
A. It provides synchronous message handling through message driven beans.
B. It provides support for both local and remote client views for session beans.
C. It provides support for both local and remote client views for message driven beans.
D. It guarantees that all services represented by an object will have conversational state.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Given:
Which EJB role is responsible for supplying this information?
A. Deployer
B. Bean Provider
C. Container Provider
D. System Administrator
E. Application Assembler
Answer: E

SUN   310-090   310-090 test questions

NO.3 Which is a capability guaranteed by all EJB 2.0 containers?
A. JTA support
B. server failover
C. load balancing
D. servlet support
E. server clustering
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The EJB container must not allow the same enterprise bean to be deployed multiple times.
B. The EJB container must allow IIOP invocations on remote component and home interfaces.
C. The EJB container is not required to support publishing home references in a CORBA CosNaming
service.
D. The EJB container must implement the resource manager connection factory classes for resource
managers configured with the container.
E. The EJB container must allow enterprise beans deployed in the same enterprise archive to access one
another directly without having to go through home or remote interfaces.
Answer: B D

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NO.5 Which accurately describes a characteristic of EJB 2.0?
A. EJB 2.0 is an example of a web-based component model.
B. EJB 2.0 components must be directly accessible via HTTP.
C. EJB 2.0 is an example of a component model for GUI applications.
D. EJB 2.0 applications can link to legacy systems using a J2EE connector.
Answer: D

SUN   310-090   310-090   310-090 exam prep   310-090

NO.6 Which method can be found in BOTH the EJBHome and EJBLocalHome interface?
A. getHomeHandle()
B. getEJBMetaData()
C. remove(Handle handle)
D. remove(Object primaryKey)
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two APIs are provided to the Bean Provider by an EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
A. JTA
B. JMX
C. JSP
D. JDO
E. JAXP
Answer: A E

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NO.8 Which statement is true about a session bean's lifecycle?
A. Session beans cannot receive re-entrant loopback calls.
B. A stateless session bean's home interface can have overloaded create methods.
C. Stateless session beans can implement javax.ejb.SessionSynchronization.
D. The EJB 2.0 container can make concurrent calls to any stateful session bean instance.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which transaction attribute may cause a javax.transaction.TransactionRequiredException to be
thrown?
A. Required
B. Supports
C. Mandatory
D. RequiresNew
Answer: C

SUN   310-090   310-090   310-090

NO.10 Which two are required to properly implement a CMP entity bean class? (Choose two.)
A. Declare variables for all persistent fields.
B. Provide constructors to initialize the CMP fields.
C. Do not implement the ejbFind<METHOD> methods.
D. Provide implementation code for get and set methods to store and retrieve the persistent fields.
E. Implement ejbCreate<METHOD> methods for all home interface create<METHOD> methods.
Answer: C E

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NO.11 Which is a Bean Provider's security-related responsibility?
A. assigns principals to roles in the application server
B. declares the role-link element in the deployment descriptor
C. declares the security-role element in the deployment descriptor
D. declares the security-role-ref element in the deployment descriptor
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is true about using java.net.Socket and java.net.ServerSocket within session bean business
methods?
A. Both classes can be used.
B. Neither class can be used.
C. Of the two classes, only java.net.Socket can be used.
D. Of the two classes, only java.net.ServerSocket can be used.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Who must ensure that a bean's environment entries are set to meaningful values?
A. Deployer
B. Bean Provider
C. EJB Server Provider
D. System Administrator
E. Application Assembler
F. EJB Container Provider
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statement about EJB QL is true?
A. An EJB QL query must contain the ORDER BY clause.
B. An EJB QL query is statically defined in the ejb-jar.xml deployment descriptor.
C. Duplicate values are always removed from EJB QL query results by the container.
D. It is legal to use an input parameter in the FROM clause or the SELECT clause of an EJB QL query.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two statements about a client's reference to a session bean's remote home interface are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The reference can be passed as a method argument.
B. The reference provides the client with the IP address of the bean instance.
C. The reference provides the client with access to at least one create method.
D. A new home reference must be obtained for each new reference to a remote component interface.
Answer: A C

SUN test   310-090 pdf   310-090

NO.16 Place the expertise on its associated EJB role.
Answer:

NO.17 Which two actions could adversely affect the portability of an EJB 2.0 bean? (Choose two.)
A. changing a thread's priority
B. directly reading or writing a file descriptor
C. using java.net.Socket to be a network client
D. demarcating a transaction in a stateless session bean
E. using bean-managed transactions in a message-driven bean
Answer: A B

SUN   310-090   310-090

NO.18 Label the methods according to whether the container ensures that the identity of the associated
entity object is available or unavailable to the instance during the method.
Answer:

NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
All beans involved use container-managed transactions and all methods are marked as Required. At
runtime, methodB is unable to communicate with its resource and calls the setRollbackOnly method.
What is the result?
A. JMS message redelivery semantics will apply.
B. The rollback will propagate to the sender of the message.
C. The bean's onMessage method will reattempt the sequence.
D. Transactions started by the onMessage method will always commit.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two must be in an ejb-jar file, either by inclusion or reference? (Choose two.)
A. an enterprise archive (.ear) file
B. a deployment descriptor in the format defined by the EJB 2.0 specification
C. the class files for the classes that implement the home and remote interfaces
D. the class files for the interfaces and superinterfaces used by the bean, except J2SE or J2EE interfaces
E. the class files for the stub classes of the EJBHome andEJBObject interfaces, if remote interfaces are
deployed for the bean
Answer: B D

SUN test   310-090   310-090

NO.21 Which method from javax.ejb.EJBContext returns an object that allows a Bean Provider to demarcate
transactions?
A. begin()
B. getAutoCommit()
C. getTransaction()
D. beginTransaction()
E. getUserTransaction()
Answer: E

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NO.22 Which two are valid types for persistent fields in a CMP 2.0 entity bean? (Choose two.)
A. Java primitives
B. entity bean local interfaces
C. classes implementing java.io.Serializable
D. either java.util.Collection or java.util.Set
Answer: A C

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NO.23 What are two programming restrictions in the EJB 2.0 specification? (Choose two.)
A. An enterprise bean must not declare static fields as final .
B. An enterprise bean must not attempt to load a native library.
C. An enterprise bean must not attempt to create a new security manager.
D. An enterprise bean must not propagate a RuntimeException to the container.
E. An enterprise bean must not attempt to obtain a javax.naming.InitialContext .
Answer: B C

SUN   310-090 test answers   310-090

NO.24 Which two are guaranteed to a Bean Provider using an EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
A. access to the JCE API
B. access to JavaMail API
C. access to the JXTA API
D. access to the JAXP API
Answer: B D

SUN   310-090   310-090   310-090

NO.25 Which two must a Bean Provider avoid in an enterprise bean to ensure that the bean is portable to
any compliant EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
(Assume that all reference variables have been correctly and legally initialized.)
A. java.sql.Connection c = aDataSource.getConnection();
B. java.security.Principal p = context.getCallerPrincipal();
C. QueueSession q = aQueueConnection.createQueueSession(true, 0);
D. Object o = new Object();
Object o2 = o.getClass().getClassLoader();
E. java.io.FileInputStream fs = new java.io.FileInputStream("MyFile");
Answer: D E

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NO.26 Which feature is mandatory for an EJB 2.0 compliant container?
A. JMX support
B. JVM co-resident JSPs
C. deferred database writes
D. lazy loading of entity bean data
E. client principal caller propagation
Answer: E

SUN   310-090 test answers   310-090 test

NO.27 Which exception can be thrown by the findByPrimaryKey method of a remotely called entity bean using
container-managed persistence?
A. javax.ejb.EJBException
B. javax.ejb.DuplicateKeyException
C. javax.ejb.NoSuchEntityException
D. javax.ejb.ObjectNotFoundException
Answer: D

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NO.28 What two statements are true about EJB 2.0 container crashes? (Choose two.)
A. Entities will survive.
B. An entity bean's primary key will survive.
C. Message-driven bean instances will survive.
D. Stateful session bean instances will survive.
E. Crashes are guaranteed to be transparent to clients using entity beans.
Answer: A B

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NO.29 Which two must a Bean Provider supply for each enterprise bean in the deployment descriptor?
(Choose two.)
A. security roles
B. the JNDI name of the enterprise bean
C. the enterprise bean type: session, entity, or message-driven
D. the value of the transaction attributes for the home and component interface methods
E. the fully-qualified name of the class that implements the enterprise bean's business methods
Answer: C E

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NO.30 Given:
Which two elements must be included in the <resource-ref> tag? (Choose two.)
A. <res-type>
B. <res-ref-name>
C. <resource-env-ref>
D. <environment-resource>
Answer: A B

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Exam Code: BAS-001
Exam Name: IBM (IBM OpenPages Developer Fundamentals)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 You are using the OpenPages GPO platform and want to develop a new workflow. Which tool
would you use?
A. Interstage BPM Console
B. Interstage BPM Workflow Studio
C. CommandCenter Query Studio
D. Microsoft Office Visio
Answer: B

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NO.2 In IBM OpenPages, you want to configure a profile. Which three functions are available?
(Choose
three.)
A. Associate users.
B. Add new fields to the database.
C. Set localized object text.
D. Set up a home page.
E. Configure views for an object type.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.3 What are the three basic components of the IBM OpenPages platform? (Choose three.)
A. Application server
B. Database server
C. Authentication server
D. E-mail server
E. Cognos Business Intelligence server
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 What must you do before entering information about the user, user account, and creating the
new
OpenPages user?
A. Assign the user at least one profile.
B. Select the group to which the user will belong.
C. Assign the user at least one role.
D. Ensure that the organization structure has been finalized.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You want to configure new fields in the IBM OpenPages platform using data types. What are
three
valid data types? (Choose three.)
A. Single file
B. Reporting fragment
C. Picklist
D. Currency
E. Rich text
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 The Object Manager tool provided with OpenPages allows for the import and export of data
in
which format?
A. XLS
B. SQL
C. PDF
D. XML
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three statements describe valid business benefits of IBM OpenPages platform modules?
(Choose three.)
A. Provides confidence that compliance is achieved, risks are mitigated and corporate policies and
procedures are enforced.
B. Provides a compliance and business focused view into the corporate general ledger.
C. Provides executive management with assurance into the state of compliance.
D. Standardizes compliance across regulations to reduce cost and deliver a holistic understanding
of all compliance risk.
E. Provides assurance to executive management that the company meets all corporate board
governance goals.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 You are working with an AECON data sheet. What are two global configurations? (Choose
two.)
A. Dependent picklists
B. Detail View
C. Field dependencies
D. Activity Views
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 A user requires the ability to create child Processes directly associated to parent Business
Entities
in the application. Which minimum Security Access Control Permissions should the administrator
grant to the user’s role template?
A. Grant read access on the Entity; grant read/write/associate access on the Process.
B. Grant read/write access on the Entity; grant read/write/associate access on the Process.
C. Grant read/write/associate access on the Entity; grant read/write access on the Process.
D. Grant read/associate access on the Entity; grant read/write/associate access on the Process.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which three values are correct Object Manager command line parameters? (Choose three.)
A. Dump or “d”
B. Extract or “e”
C. Load or “l”
D. Verify or “V”
E. Test or“t”
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.1 Which IBM Tivoli product automates license tracking in order to meet compliance
requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Service Provider
B. IBM SmartCloud Control Desk
C. IBM Maximo Asset Management
D. IBM Tivoli Service Automation Manager
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a possible line type value on a purchase order line?
A. Asset
B. Material
C. Inventory
D. Standard Tool
Answer: B

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NO.3 To prepare for detailed Reliability’ Centered Maintenance (RCM) analysis, important decisions
need to be made regarding the way equipment is classified from the main system to subsystem
and within unit levels. This must be done in a way that is consistent with the existing maintenance
strategy, tasks, routines, and levels of unit replacement. Which features and functions enable the
classification and navigation through this structure?
A. Drill Down and Classification
B. Drill Down and Select Action
C. Classification and Service Catalog
D. Select Action and Service Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which actions are required to perform a gap analysis?
A. ldenti1i the capabilities of the software product and relate these capabilities to the executable
high-level business process steps.
B. Compare the current system with potential new standard software systems, and document and
analyze the gaps between these systems.
C. Identify all gaps between the current and future business processes, and document the steps to
resolve the differences between these processes.
D. Compare the to-be business processes with the reference processes from the standard
software system, and document and analyze the differences.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer has many assets that they would like to record and create master preventive maintenance records for in IBM Maximo Asset Management (Maximo). Which type of record, when purchasing, would create these assets in Maximo?
A. Rotating Items
B. Rotating Assets
C. Non-rotating Items
D. Non-rotating Assets
Answer: A

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NO.6 When creating a new PM, where are detailed task steps defined?
A. on the route
B. inajobplan
C. inthePMplans
D. onthemasterPM
Answer: B

IBM test questions   000-651   000-651

NO.7 What is used to compare the estimate versus actual cost for a job?
A. The project cost accounting application
B. Job plan resources and actual resources
C. Work plan resources and actual resources
D. GL debit accounts and GL credit accounts
Answer: C

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NO.8 Across IBM Maximo Asset Management implementations, what is least likely to be
implemented at
the completion of the project (go-live date)?
A. inventory
B. work order
C. labor planning
D. preventive maintenance
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which item describes the basic concept of Total Productive Maintenance which is a
maintenance
methodology that a customer may subscribe to?
A. fix it before it breaks
B. all assets in use, generating value
C. all maintenance personnel in use, productively
D. zero error, zero work-related accidents, and zero loss
Answer: D

IBM   000-651   000-651   000-651   000-651

NO.10 Which industry solution based on IBM Maximo Asset Management provides the ability to record and manage smart meters?
A. IBM Maximo for Utilities
B. IBM Maximo for Government
C. IBM Maximo for Oil and Gas
D. IBM Maximo for Transportation
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-654
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Mgr V7.2.1.3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which GUI JVM settings in the collation.properties file would be most appropriate for a large
(2500-5000 SEs) IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 environment?
A. Default values are enough
B. com.collation.gui.initial.heap.size=512g
com.collation.gui.max.heap.size=1024g
C. com.collation.gui.initial.heap.size=128m
com.collation.gui.max.heap.size=512m
D. com.collation.gui.initial.heap.size=512m
com.collation.gui.max.heap.size=1024m
Answer: D

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NO.2 IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 has just been installed on a
Linux
system. Which step should the administrator do right after installation?
A. Check that firewalls have the proper ports defined
B. Ensure that SSL is turned off on the client systems
C. Verity that the Apache server is running with the appropriate settings
D. Run the command $C0LLATI0N HOME/bin/control status and check for errors
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is an Isof requirement for an IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager
V7.2.1.3 administrator to use the Level 2 discovery sensors on an AIX system?
A. Isof must be run using sudo
B. Isof is not used for discovery
C. The service account must be root
D. The service account user must have a UID in the 1 - 9 range
Answer: A

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NO.4 While creating a non-admin user account for Windows discovery using IBM Tivoli Application
Dependency Discovery manager V7.2.1.3, which option should be selected?
A. Account is disabled
B. Password never expires
C. User cannot change password
D. User must change password at next logon
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer is getting ready to set up a Level 3 profile in order to scan their production IBM
WebSphere servers which are running V6.1, V7, V8, and V8.5. What should be the first step in
setting up the profile?
A. Setup access list entry
B. Check the sensor reference guide in the IBM Info Center to ensure the scanned platforms are
supported target versions
C. Check if WebSphere security is turned on and if so, obtain a valid user ID and password to the
WebSphere Admin Console
D. Retrieve needed SSL WebSphere certificates and place them on the IBM Tivoli Application
Dependency Discovery Manager Console
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which file is used to edit the logging properties?
A. edm.properties
B. bulkload.properties
C. collation.properties
D. database.properties
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which tool creates the users when a file-based registry is used?
A. The LDAP Console
B. The User Admin Portal
C. The Data Management Portal
D. The Discovery Management Portal
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which environment variable is used to specify the location of the application descriptor file?
A. DESC_FILE_LOC
B. COLLATION_HOME
C. APP_DESC_FILE_DIR
D. COLL_APP_DESC_DIR
Answer: D

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NO.9 The IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 (TADDM) administrator
would like to display location tagging in Business Intelligence Reporting Tool (BIRT) based
reports. What must the TADDM administrator do to add location tagging information in BIRT
reports?
A. Modify com.collation.anchor.tag in collation.properties.
B. Modify the existing BIRT reports to add location tag information.
C. Just run the reports; location tagging is already enabled in the BIRT reports.
D. Turn on the location tagging feature when the BIRT report is run using the radio button.
Answer: B

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NO.10 An IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 administrator needs to
gather
credentials for the sensors that will be running. What is the primary command that is used on
UNIX systems sensors?
A. isof
B. sudo
C. prtconf
D. syscommand
Answer: A

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