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Exam Code: BH0-005
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Certificate in Software Asset Management Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following BEST describes the objective of the Core Asset Management processes?
A.To maintain information about software assets throughout their lifecycle and to manage the physical
assets related to software
B.To manage all software assets and their licenses.
C.To manage all software and hardware assets
D.To identify and maintain information about all software assets throughout their lifecycle.
Answer:A

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NO.2 There is a need to reduce the number of SAM reports produced. Which of the following is the LEAST
necessary?
A.The number of software related calls to the Service Desk
B.The cost of a site licence for existing software
C.The number of deployed licenses for each item of software
D.The number of new software licenses required.
Answer:A

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NO.3 What method of metering would be BEST suited to a concurrent license based application?
A.Active
B.Selective
C.Non-selective.
D.Passive.
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which of these elements is part of the preparation stage of implementation?
A.Identifying and assessing software risks and creating a risk register
B.Occasionally completing surprise or ad hoc reviews and audits
C.Highlighting any problems and raising the profile of continued non-conformance
D.Continuously emphasise the importance of the SAM process to all ICT and business personnel.
Answer:A

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NO.5 For reporting purposes which of the following would you NOT expect to be used to derive SAM reports?
A.DSL
B.CMDB
C.OLA.
D.KEDB.
Answer:C

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Exam Code: ISEB-BA1
Exam Name: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Business Analysis)
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Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 In a particular organisation it is common practice to call all managers by their first name. It is part of the
culture of the organisation. Newcomers are quickly corrected if they do not follow this informal approach.
What would knowing about this convention be classified as in Requirements Engineering?
A. Explicit individual knowledge.
B. Tacit individual knowledge.
C. Explicit corporate knowledge.
D. Tacit corporate knowledge.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statement is TRUE about the process view of an organisation?
A. It focuses on the customer of the organisation.
B. It focuses solely on the internal view of the organisation.
C. It focuses on the functions of an organisation.
D. It focuses on the organisational structure.
Answer: A

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NO.3 When should benefits realisation be carried out?
A. Immediately at the end of the project.
B. At the beginning of the project.
C. At the end of the finalised feasibility study.
D. Months or years after the end of the project.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A stakeholder has been classified as 'some' on both the power/influence and interest axes of a
power/interest grid. Which of the following would be an appropriate way of managing this
stakeholder?
A. Keep on side.
B. Keep watching.
C. Keep informed.
D. Keep satisfied.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following investigation techniques involves following a user for one or two days in order to
find out what a particular job entails?
A. Scenario analysis.
B. Protocol analysis.
C. Shadowing.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Different reactions may be observed when a change to working methods is proposed. These reactions
include:
a. Enthusiasm for the change.
b. Fear of the change.
c. Reduced performance on the job.
d. Reluctant acceptance of the change.
Which of the following represents the typical sequence of these four reactions?
A. b, d, c and a.
B. a, b, c and d.
C. b, c, d and a.
D. a, b, d and c.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A well formed requirement is said to comply with which of the following acronyms?
A. MOSCOW.
B. SMART.
C. OSCAR.
D. MOST.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A batch program runs every night to raise invoices. The next day these invoices are posted out to
customers by a clerk. Customers pay the invoices with cheques. The cheques are then banked by a clerk.
In this scenario, which of the following represents a business event?
A. System prints invoices.
B. Clerk sends invoices to customers.
C. Customer's cheque is received.
D. Clerk banks the cheque.
Answer: C

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NO.9 In which of the following business analysis areas does the traditional systems analyst role primarily
operate?
A. Quantifying costs and benefits.
B. Defining the needs of the business.
C. Implementing business changes.
D. Specifying IT system requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following terms may be used to describe the attitude of a stakeholder who is NOT in favour
of the project but is probably not actively opposed to it?
A. Opponent.
B. Neutral.
C. Critic.
D. Blocker.
Answer: C

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NO.11 It has been suggested that five clerical posts can be abolished when a new computer system is
implemented. Under which category of costs or benefits will this be recorded?
A. Tangible costs.
B. Tangible benefits.
C. Intangible costs.
D. Intangible benefits.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Given the cashflows below, which of the following is correct?
A. The project pays back in year 4 of the project.
B. The project does not pay back within the four year period.
C. The project pays back in year 2 of the project.
D. The project pays back in year 3 of the project.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Business rules define how actions are to be performed. Under which of the following headings are
business rules considered?
A. Explicit or implicit management statements,
B. Statutory and internal policies.
C. Constraints and operational guidance.
D. Negotiable and non-negotiable limitations.
Answer: C

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NO.14 As part of an investigation a Business Analyst has devised a form for users of an existing system to use
to keep track of the tasks they undertake during their working day. Which of the following describes this
investigation technique?
A. Special purpose records,
B. Scenario analysis.
C. Questionnaires.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which stage in the waterfall model is considered as several separate stages in the V model?
A. Development.
B. Analysis.
C. Testing.
D. Design.
Answer: C

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NO.16 The required competencies of a business analyst are classified into three categories.
Which of the following is one of these three categories.?
A. Management Qualities.
B. Business Knowledge.
C. IT Skills
D. Project Skills.
Answer: B

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NO.17 During which stage of the Business Analysis Process Model would a gap analysis be carried out?
A. Define requirements.
B. Analyse needs.
C. Evaluate the options.
D. Investigate situation.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the first stage of the waterfall systems development lifecycle?
A. Plan.
B. Analysis.
C. Feasibility Study.
D. Strategic Vision.
Answer: C

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NO.19 On a class diagram, what do the multiplicities represent?
A. The number of attributes held within each class.
B. The minimum and maximum number of operations in each class.
C. The minimum and maximum number of objects in each class.
D. The business rules for an association between two classes.
Answer: D

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NO.20 What does the O' stand for in the CATVVOE analysis?
A. The objectives of the business system under review.
B. The opportunities for change in the business system under review.
C. The organisation of the business system under review.
D. The owner of the business system under review.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: BH0-011
Exam Name: ISEB (BCS Intermediate certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Why has the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres been developed?
a. Because data centres are using an increasing amount of power and they need to maximise their
efficiency to reduce their impact on the power infrastructure.
b. Because the power consumption of data centres across Europe as a whole needs to fall to meet
agreed C02 targets.
c. Because many data centres have outdated designs which focus on perceived reliability at the expense
of cost and energy efficiency.
d. Because the energy consumption of data centres has become a significant business cost.
e. Because the United States (US) has taken a significant lead in energy conservation and EU-based data
centres need a code of conduct to compete in a global marketplace.
A. a, b, c and d
B. a, c and d
C. b and e
D. e only
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following BEST define the aims of the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres.?
a. To determine and accelerate the application of energy efficient technologies.
b. Develop practical voluntary commitments which when implemented improve the energy efficiency of
data centres and in so doing minimise the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
c. To develop and promote a set of easily understood metrics to measure the current efficiencies and
subsequent improvement.
d. To encourage the closure of data centres that are less energy efficient.
e. To ensure that the EU is visibly taking a lead in this important area of energy conservation.
A. a, b, c and d
B. d and e
C. a, b and c
D. e only
Answer: C

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NO.3 The numerical value associated with each Best Practice is shown for the following reason:
A. To allow operators to add up their total score in order that they can be compared with their competitors.
B. To allow the Code of Conduct administrators to properly assess each application.
C. To provide an independent scorecard for data centre owners.
D. To indicate the level of benefit from carrying out a Best Practice.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A facility's 'IT load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the
following?
a. The Power Distribution Units feeding the racks
b. Servers
c. Firewalls
d. Switches
e. Tape libraries
A. b, c. d and e
B. a, d and e
C. b and c
D. b. c and d
Answer: A

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NO.5 'Facility load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the following?
a. The UPS.
b. Lighting.
c. Air-conditioning units.
d. Monitors housed in racks.
e. Tape libraries
A. a, b, and c
B. a and d
C. b and c
D. d, and e
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ISEBSWTINT-001
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Software Testing Intermediate)
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Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which one is a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A. The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to
monitor air temperatures.
B. SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C. Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D. Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following would be an entry criterion into site acceptance testing for the air
quality monitoring system?
A. That the code written to fulfil the requirement to monitor carbon dioxide levels has been 100%
path tested.
B. That the functional specification accurately reflects requirements R1 and R2.
C. That the system has been tested at levels of oxygen usage well beyond anticipated personnel
levels.
D. That the requirements for temperature control have been signed-off.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following test design techniques would be most suitable for testing that the
oxygen is released at the required times?
A. Decision Testing.
B. Statement Testing.
C. Data flow Testing.
D. Boundary Value Analysis.
Answer: D

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NO.4 When creating the functional specification for the temperature control system, which of the
following review types would be most recommended to resolve any issues?
A. A walkthrough.
B. A technical review.
C. A management review.
D. A code inspection.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is an accurate depiction of the hierarchy of test management
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A. Test policy-Test strategy-Project test plan-System test plan
B. Test strategy-Test policy-Project test plan-System test plan
C. Test policy-Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan
D. Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan-Test policy
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CISSP-ISSAP
Exam Name: ISC (CISSP-ISSAP - Information Systems Security Architecture Professional)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 237 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following types of attack can be used to break the best physical and logical security
mechanism to gain access to a system?
A. Social engineering attack
B. Cross site scripting attack
C. Mail bombing
D. Password guessing attack
Answer: A

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NO.2 You want to implement a network topology that provides the best balance for regional topologies in
terms of the number of virtual circuits, redundancy, and performance while establishing a WAN network.
Which of the following network topologies will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Bus topology
B. Fully meshed topology
C. Star topology
D. Partially meshed topology
Answer: D

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NO.3 Peter works as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company wants to allow remote users to
connect and access its private network through a dial-up connection via the Internet. All the data will be
sent across a public network. For security reasons, the management wants the data sent through the
Internet to be encrypted. The company plans to use a Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) connection.
Which communication protocol will Peter use to accomplish the task?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Microsoft Point-to-Point Encryption (MPPE)
C. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
D. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
Answer: A

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NO.4 A user is sending a large number of protocol packets to a network in order to saturate its resources and
to disrupt connections to prevent communications between services. Which type of attack is this?
A. Denial-of-Service attack
B. Vulnerability attack
C. Social Engineering attack
D. Impersonation attack
Answer: A

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NO.5 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources
that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Policy Access Control
B. Mandatory Access Control
C. Discretionary Access Control
D. Role-Based Access Control
Answer: D

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NO.6 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company wants to encrypt its e-mails. Which
of the following will you use to accomplish this?
A. PGP
B. PPTP
C. IPSec
D. NTFS
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is used to authenticate asymmetric keys?
A. Digital signature
B. MAC Address
C. Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
D. Password
Answer: A

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NO.8 Adam works as a Security Analyst for Umbrella Inc. CEO of the company ordered him to implement
two-factor authentication for the employees to access their networks. He has told him that he would like to
use some type of hardware device in tandem with a security or identifying pin number. Adam decides to
implement smart cards but they are not cost effective. Which of the following types of hardware devices
will Adam use to implement two-factor authentication?
A. Biometric device
B. One Time Password
C. Proximity cards
D. Security token
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are the Security Consultant advising a company on security methods. This is a highly secure
location that deals with sensitive national defense related data. They are very concerned about physical
security as they had a breach last month. In that breach an individual had simply grabbed a laptop and
ran out of the building. Which one of the following would have been most effective in preventing this?
A. Not using laptops.
B. Keeping all doors locked with a guard.
C. Using a man-trap.
D. A sign in log.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following protocols multicasts messages and information among all member devices in an
IP multicast group?
A. ARP
B. ICMP
C. TCP
D. IGMP
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following protocols is an alternative to certificate revocation lists (CRL) and allows the
authenticity of a certificate to be immediately verified?
A. RSTP
B. SKIP
C. OCSP
D. HTTP
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is a method for transforming a message into a masked form, together with a way
of undoing the transformation to recover the message?
A. Cipher
B. CrypTool
C. Steganography
D. MIME
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following security devices is presented to indicate some feat of service, a special
accomplishment, a symbol of authority granted by taking an oath, a sign of legitimate employment or
student status, or as a simple means of identification?
A. Sensor
B. Alarm
C. Motion detector
D. Badge
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following types of firewall functions at the Session layer of OSI model?
A. Circuit-level firewall
B. Application-level firewall
C. Packet filtering firewall
D. Switch-level firewall
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following does PEAP use to authenticate the user inside an encrypted tunnel? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. GTC
B. MS-CHAP v2
C. AES
D. RC4
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 IPsec VPN provides a high degree of data privacy by establishing trust points between communicating
devices and data encryption. Which of the following encryption methods does IPsec VPN use? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. MD5
B. LEAP
C. AES
D. 3DES
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a
particular message?
A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Authentication
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following terms refers to the method that allows or restricts specific types of packets from
crossing over the firewall.?
A. Hacking
B. Packet filtering
C. Web caching
D. Spoofing
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the
market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Product gap
C. Competitive gap
D. Usage gap
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following statements about a stream cipher are true? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose three.
A. It typically executes at a higher speed than a block cipher.
B. It divides a message into blocks for processing.
C. It typically executes at a slower speed than a block cipher.
D. It divides a message into bits for processing.
E. It is a symmetric key cipher.
Answer: A,D,E

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Exam Code: 000-274
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliances Firmware V5.0 Solution Implementation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A solution implementer needs to create a new service on a DataPower virtual appliance. The new server needs to virtualize the back end server IP address from the end user while exposing
operations of a web service described by a given WSDL. Service Level Monitoring (SLM) is also to
be incorporated at the port level. Which service type should the solution implementer configure?
A. XML Firewall
B. Web Service Proxy
C. Multi-Protocol Gateway
D. Web Application Firewall
Answer: B

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NO.2 A financial services company (Company) is using a DataPower appliance to securely access an
external service provider (Partner) that processes SOAP/HTTPS payment transactions and
returns the responses to the requesting application in the Company with payment confirmations.
The Partner requires that Company establish non-repudiation so that the financial services
company cannot deny that the payment transaction was originated by them. The Company
requires that the confirmation sent back from the Partner also requires non-repudiation. Which of
the following statements is true?
A. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing Company public certificate and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingPartner private key
B. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing the private key of Partner and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingCompany public certificate
C. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the Company private key and Response
Rule must Verify with crypto object containingPartner public certificate
D. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the public certificate of Partner and
Response Rule must Verify with crypto objectcontaining Company private key
Answer: C

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NO.3 A web service proxy is receiving orders from partners as SOAP messages. The service is
required
to reject messages if the total order cost in the message does not match the sum of the individual
item costs. What can the solution implementer do to support this requirement?
A. Create an XML Schema that enforces the above business requirements and uses this schema
in a Validate action.
B. Create a style sheet which performs the mathematical comparison and uses either a
<dp:accept> or <dp:reject>, and use this in a Filter action.
C. Configure an SLM Statement with the Threshold Level that computes the total order cost, and if
it does not match the total value then throttlethe transaction.
D. Define the requirement in a WS-Policy attachment for the service. The web service proxy will
then automatically perform the mathematicalcomparison and reject any invalid messages.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A company-wide Certificate Authority (CA) provides its internal CA root and intermediary
certificates to the solution implementer to use for the creation of Validation Credentials that
validates several back end servers using SSL. The two lines of business in the company provide
services on two different domains on DataPower and two different banks of servers on the back
end. The requirement is to share a single copy of the CA certificates to create validation
credentials in two domains for both the lines of business to simplify maintenance. How can the
solution implementer satisfy the requirement?
A. Store the CA certificates in the sharedcert: folder from the default domain.
B. Store the CA certificates in the store:///cert folder from the default domain.
C. Create Validation Credentials in the default domain so it can be shared across all the domains.
D. Store the certificate in the cert: folder in any of the two domains and mark the certificate as
shared.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company wants to enforce the run-time SOA governance using service level agreement (SLA)
and service level definitions (SLD) policy attachments for a line of business. The solution
implementer has configured a web service proxy service that uses a WebSphere Service Registry
and Repository (WSRR) subscription to meet this requirement. The WSRR server hosts the
governance enablement profile that contains SLA and SLD entities. The SLA objects in WSRR are
in SLA Active State. During a test run, it was identified that SLA policies from WSRR are not
enforced. How can the solution implementer resolve this situation to enforce SLA policies?
(choose 2) Verify that the:
A. SLA policies are accurate using probe.
B. SLA Enforcement Mode is set as "reject".
C. WSRR server object is set to version 7.5 or later.
D. WS-Policy Enforcement Mode is set as "enforce".
E. Fetch Policy Attachments option for the WSRR Subscription is set as "on".
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: 000-415
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere IIS DataStage Enterprise Edition v7.5)
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Total Q&A: 158 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Establishing a consistent naming standard for link names is useful in which two ways?
(Choose two.)
A.using less memory at job runtime
B.specifying link order without having to specify stage properties to generate correct results
C.improving developer productivity and quality by distinguishing link names within stage editors
D.easing use of captured job statistics (eg. row counts in an XML file) by processes or users outside of
DataStage
Correct:C D

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NO.2 Which two can be implemented in a Job Sequence using job parameters? (Choose two.)
A.All options of the Start Loop Activity stage.
B.Name of a job to be executed by a Job Activity stage.
C.A command to be executed by a Routine Activity stage.
D.The body of the email notification activity using the user interface.
Correct:A C

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NO.3 Click the Task button. You have been asked to improve the performance of a job. A consultant
has convinced your manager that sorts and partitions are major contributors to the performance
issues being experienced since they are specified as "auto". Both the aggregation and join are
done on Zip (postal) code. Place the appropriate sort/aggregation specifications on the links.
Correct:
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice4

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NO.4 Which two statements are true of the column data types used in Orchestrate schemas? (Choose
two.)
A.Examples of Orchestrate schema column data types are varchar and integer.
B.Examples of Orchestrate schema column data types are int32 and string [max=30].
C.Orchestrate schema column data types are the same as those used in DataStage stages.
D.OSH import operators are needed to convert data read from sequential files into schema types.
Correct:B D

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NO.5 Which statement describes a process for capturing a COBOL copybook from a z/OS system?
A.Select the COBOL copybook using the Browse button and capture the COBOL copybook with Manager.
B.FTP the COBOL copybook to the client workstation in binary and capture the metadata through
Manager.
C.FTP the COBOL copybook to the client workstation in text mode and capture the copybook with
Manager.
D.FTP the COBOL copybook to the server platform in text mode and capture the metadata through
Manager.
Correct:C

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NO.6 How does a Join stage process an Inner join?
A.It transfers records from the input data sets whose key columns contain equal values to the output data
set.
B.It transfers all values from the left data set but transfers values from the right data set and intermediate
data sets only when key columns match.
C.It transfers all values from the right data set and transfers values from the left data set and intermediate
data sets only where key columns match.
D.It transfers records in which the contents of the key columns are equal from the left and right input data
sets to the output data set. It also transfers records whose key columns contain unequal values from both
input data sets to the output data set.
Correct:A

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NO.7 Which two statements about performance tuning a DataStage EE environment are true?
(Choose two.)
A.Overall job design has a minimal impact in actual real-world performance.
B.Only adjust buffer tuning parameters after examining other performance factors.
C.A single, optimized configuration file will yield best performance for all jobs and be easier to administer.
D.Performance tuning is an iterative process - adjust one item at a time and examine the results in
isolation.
Correct:B D

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NO.8 Which command can be used to execute DataStage jobs from a UNIX shell script?
A.osh
B.dsjob
C.DSRunJob
D.DSExecute
Correct:B

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NO.9 Which three are valid ways within a Job Sequence to pass parameters to Activity stages?
(Choose three.)
A.Routine Activity stage
B.Sequencer Activity stage
C.UserVariables Activity stage
D.ExecCommand Activity stage
E.Nested Condition Activity stage
Correct:A C D

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NO.10 Job run details for a specific invocation of a multi-instance job can be viewed by which two
clients? (Choose two.)
A.dsjob
B.dsjobinfo
C.DataStage Director
D.DataStage Manager
Correct:A C

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NO.11 The last two steps of a job are an Aggregator stage using the Hash method and a Sequential File
stage with a Collector type of Auto that creates a comma delimited output file for use by a
common spreadsheet program. The job runs a long time because data volumes have increased.
Which two changes would improve performance? (Choose two.)
A.Change the Sequential stage to use a Sort Merge collector on the aggregation keys.
B.Change the Sequential stage to a Data Set stage to allow the write to occur in parallel.
C.Change the Aggregator stage to use the sort method. Hash and sort on the aggregation keys.
D.Change the Aggregator stage to a Transformer stage and use stage variables to accumulate the
aggregations.
Correct:A C

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NO.12 Which three are valid trigger expressions in a stage in a Job Sequence? (Choose three.)
A.Unconditional
B.Equality(Conditional)
C.Custom(Conditional)
D.Difference(Conditional)
E.ReturnValue(Conditional)
Correct:A C E

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NO.13 A job has two input sources that need to be combined. Each input source exceeds available
physical memory. The files are in the same format and must be combined using a key value. It is
guaranteed that there will be at least one match. Given the above scenario, which stage would
consume the least amount of physical memory?
A.Merge
B.Funnel
C.Lookup
D.Transformer
Correct:A

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NO.14 Which statement about job parameter usage is true?
A.You can use environment variables to set parameter values linked to the Job Sequence.
B.You can change the parameter values in an initialization file linked to a Job Sequence .ini file.
C.Changes to the job parameters in the Designer do not require a recompile to be applied to the job.
D.You can change job parameters while a job is running and the changes will immediately be applied
mid-job.
Correct:A

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NO.15 What is the purpose of the uv command in a UNIX DataStage server?
A.Start and stop the DataStage engine.
B.Report DataStage client connections.
C.Cleanup resources from a failed DataStage job.
D.Provide read access to a DataStage EE configuration file.
Correct:A

IBM certification   000-415   000-415   000-415   000-415 test

NO.16 A customer is interested in selecting the right RDBMS environment to run DataStage
Enterprise Edition to solve a multi-file and relational database data merge. The customer realizes
the value of running in parallel and is interested in knowing which RDBMS stage will match the
internal data partitioning of a given RDBMS. Which RDBMS stage will satisfy the customer's
request?
A.ODBC Enterprise
B.Oracle Enterprise
C.Sybase Enterprise
D.DB2/UDB Enterprise
Correct:D

IBM certification   000-415   000-415   000-415   000-415 test

NO.17 In which two scenarios should a sparse lookup be used in place of a normal lookup to retrieve
data from an Oracle database? (Choose two.)
A.When the Oracle database is on the same system as the DataStage server.
B.When the number of input rows is significantly larger than the number of rows in the lookup table.
C.When the number of input rows is significantly smaller than the number of rows in the lookup table.
D.A database function that returns the current value of an Oracle object is required as part of the result set.
Correct:C D

IBM certification   000-415   000-415   000-415   000-415 test

NO.18 Which statement is true about Aggregator Sort and Hash methods when the
APT_NO_SORT_INSERTION environment variable is set to TRUE?
A.If you select the Hash method, the Aggregator stage requires the data to have the partition sorted by
the group key.
B.If you select the Sort method, the Aggregator stage requires the data to have been partition sorted by
the group key.
C.If you select the Sort method, the Aggregator stage will partition sort the data by the group key before
performing the aggregation.
D.If you select the Hash method, the Aggregator stage will partition sort the data by the group key before
building a hash table in memory.
Correct:B

IBM certification   000-415   000-415   000-415   000-415 test

NO.19 An XML file is being processed by the XML Input stage. How can repetition elements be
identified on the stage?
A.Set the "Key" property for the column on the output link to "Yes".
B.Check the "Repetition Element Required" box on the output link tab.
C.Set the "Nullable" property for the column on the output link to "Yes".
D.No special settings are required. XML Input stage automatically detects the repetition element from the
XPath expression.
Correct:A

IBM certification   000-415   000-415   000-415   000-415 test

NO.20 Which two tasks will create DataStage projects? (Choose two.)
A.Install the DataStage engine.
B.Copy a project in DataStage Administrator.
C.Add new projects from DataStage Administrator.
D.Export and import a DataStage project from DataStage Manager.
Correct:A C

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Exam Code: 000-255
Exam Name: IBM (Dev.wwIBM Rational appdev-Websphere software v6)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 110 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A developer has a partially complete Web application at the C:\root\webApplication directory. In
order to continue development in Rational Application Developer, what could the developer do?
A.Open a new workspace at C:\root\webApplication.
B.Open a new workspace at C:\root, and create a new Web project called webApplication.
C.From any workspace, create a new Web project, setting the context root to C:\root\webApplication.
D.From any workspace, create a new Web project, and selectively import the files from
C:\root\webApplication.
Correct:D

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.2 An Enterprise Application project contains multiple Dynamic Web projects. All of the Web
projects use a set of common classes defined in a Java project. The common classes are still
under development and are changing daily. What is the BEST way to make the common classes
available to the Web projects at runtime?
A.Add the Java project as a Web Library Project in each of the WARs.
B.Add the Java project as a Project Utility JAR in the EAR and create a Java JAR Dependency in each of
the Dynamic Web projects.
C.Export the Java project as a JAR file and import it into the WebContent/WEB-INF/lib folder of each of
the Dynamic Web projects.
D.Export the classes of the Java project and import the individual class files into the
WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder of each of the Dynamic Web projects.
Correct:B

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.3 What steps MUST be performed to add a Web project to a server?
A.Right-click on the Web project and select Add to Server Configuration. Select the desired server.
B.Right-click on an Enterprise Application project that contains the Web application and select Add to
Server Configuration. Select the desired server.
C.Right-click on the server in the Servers view and select Add and remove projects. Select the Web
project from the Available projects list and click Add.
D.Right-click on the server in the Servers view and select Add and remove projects. Select an Enterprise
Application project that contains the Web application from the Available projects list and click Add.
Correct:D

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.4 A developer has imported a new EAR file into a workspace. What is the result of selecting the
Enterprise Application and choosing Run -> Run on Server from its context menu?
A.The Server Selection dialog box is activated.
B.The "Add and remove projects" dialog is activated.
C.The Server Creation wizard is activated.
D.The Enterprise Application runs on the workspace default server.
Correct:A

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.5 In which TWO of the following locations can the context root of a Dynamic Web project be
changed?
A.The Modules page of the Application Deployment Descriptor editor
B.The XML source of the application.xml file
C.From the J2EE dialog of the Properties of the Dynamic Web project
D.The source of the web.xml file
Correct:B C

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.6 A developer wants to import a zip file into a project without expanding the contents of the file.
The Developer should use which of the following File -> Import features?
A.File System
B.Zip file
C.Resource file
D.J2EE Jar file
Correct:A

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.7 A developer wishes to create a project that contains a mix of HTML files, JSP files, servlets, and
Java classes. Which option should the developer choose in the New Project wizard?
A.Dynamic Web Project
B.Static Web Project
C.Java Project
D.Server Project
Correct:A

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.8 Which of the following is NOT supported by Page Designer?
A.ASP
B.HTML
C.JSP
D.JavaScript
Correct:A

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.9 What can a developer do to allow quick access to a particular Help page?
A.In the main menu, click Help -> Bookmark to bring up a list of Help topics, browse to the desired page,
and click Add.
B.In the main menu, click Favorites -> Manage Favorites, and select the desired page from the list of Help
topics.
C.In the Help window, browse to the desired page, and click the Bookmark Document icon in the toolbar.
D.In the Help window, browse to the desired page, and click Favorites -> Add to Favorites from the menu.
Correct:C

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.10 Which of the following BEST describes perspectives within Rational Application Developer?
A.A perspective is a collection of views that facilitate a particular development role.
B.A perspective can be customized with different editors, depending on the needs of the developer.
C.Perspectives can contain other perspectives.
D.Perspectives are opened as a result of launching external applications.
Correct:A

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.11 Which TWO of the following views allow a developer to see Struts resources organized by their
Struts-specific types?
A.Project Explorer
B.Java Browsing
C.Struts Gallery
D.Struts Explorer
E.Modules
Correct:A D

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.12 Which TWO of the following can be configured from the Servlets page of the Web Deployment
Descriptor?
A.Filters
B.URL Mappings
C.Initialization parameters
D.Invoker Attributes
Correct:B C

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.13 Datasources created in the Application Deployment Descriptor editor can be accessed by:
A.Applications running on the server.
B.Applications in the current workspace.
C.Modules contained in the EAR file where the definition is made.
D.J2EE Application client modules accessing the server.
Correct:C

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.14 A developer customizes the Java perspective and wants to save the changes as the default
perspective that is opened in the workspace. Which of the following actions would be BEST for
the developer to perform?
A.Choose Window -> Save Perspective As and name the new perspective MyJava; Choose Window ->
Preferences -> Workbench -> Perspectives, select MyJava and click Make Default.
B.Choose Window -> Save Perspective; Choose Window -> Preferences -> Workbench -> Perspectives,
select Java and click Make Default.
C.Choose Window -> Preferences -> Workbench -> Perspectives, select Java and click Make Default.
D.Choose Window -> Perspective -> Save Current As Default.
Correct:A

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.15 A developer is creating a Struts enabled application using the Web Diagram editor. The
resources in the editor that are gray and do not have bold label text are:
A.Private.
B.External.
C.Unrealized.
D.Interfaces.
Correct:C

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.16 When a developer creates a servlet using the Servlet wizard, what is the purpose of the servlet
name?
A.It is required to be used as the servlet class name.
B.It is used in the default URL mapping.
C.It is used to create an interface to the servlet.
D.It is used for filter mapping.
Correct:B

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.17 What should be done to prevent the Server Selection dialog box from activating when a
developer runs an Enterprise Application from its context menu?
A.Select the "Set server as project default" option from the Server Selection wizard.
B.Select the "Do not prompt" option in the Servers view.
C.Create a new server and select the "Set server as workspace default" option in the Server Creation
wizard.
D.Add the project to the server from the server's context menu.
Correct:A

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.18 Which of the following operations CANNOT be performed via the Insert Custom Tag dialog
when editing a JSP in Page Designer?
A.Import a tag library into the Web project.
B.Add a taglib descriptor to the JSP.
C.Add a tag to the JSP.
D.Add a custom JSP tag to the JSP.
Correct:C

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.19 A company is designing a Web application. Which TWO of the following technologies provide a
model-view-controller framework?
A.Struts
B.Servlet
C.JSTL
D.JSF
E.SDO
Correct:A D

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

NO.20 A standalone Java application creates a log file without specifying a path name. The log file will
be created in:
A.The product installation directory.
B.The bin subdirectory under the product installation directory.
C.The root directory of the project.
D.The package folder in which the main Java class is located.
Correct:C

IBM   000-255 exam   000-255   000-255   000-255 study guide

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