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Exam Code: HP2-N43
Exam Name: HP (HP Performance Center v.11.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which step occurs during the installation and configuration of the Performance Center Server?
A. Creation of IUSR_METRO user
B. Installation of Tuning Packages
C. Installation of MI Listener
D. Installation of Performance Center Agent Service
Answer: A

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Reference:http://hpsws.lithium.com/hpsws/attachments/hpsws/QC_SUP/ 508 /1 /(page 27, third
bullet)

NO.2 Which kind of user is enabled to access the Site Administration?
A. Only a user defined as Site Administrator
B. Only the administrator user defined during the installation phase
C. All the users defined in the Site Administration module, despite the given rights
D. A user with Performance Center User Site and Lab Management Site access rights
Answer: A

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NO.3 Topologies allow you to perform which action?
A. Extrapolate results from a QA environment to production.
B. Configure monitors using best-practice monitor templates.
C. Create new SiteScope templates.
D. Modify run-time settings of VuGen scripts
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which action can you perform from the Load Test Run page?
A. Identify the location for the load test results.
B. View online monitor graphs.
C. Establish the correct ramp-up rate for each Vuser group.
D. Enable diagnostics for a limited percentage of running Vusers.
Answer: D

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NO.5 After the load test is run, where is all the data collected and processed?
A. DB server
B. file server
C. host server
D. analysis processor
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is an example of a service level agreement (SLA) defined in the transaction volume
metrics?
A. Expected database thread count
B. Server operating system patch levels
C. Maximum web server memory usage
D. peak hour transaction count
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which steps are required to set the license key in Performance Center? (Select two.)
A. Add License Key.
B. Update License Host location.
C. Log in to the Lab Management.
D. Log in to the Performance Center Server.
E. Log in to the Performance Center Host.
Answer: A,C

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Reference:http://hpsws.lithium.com/hpsws/attachments/hpsws/QC_SUP/ 508 /1 /(page 61)

NO.8 Where is a Monitor Over Firewall installed?
A. On a dedicated machine, to monitor servers located over a firewall
B. On a dedicated machine, as a router between Controller and PC Agent
C. On the server machine to be monitored, in order to tunnel packets across the interposing firewall
D. On the Controller machine, in order to reach monitored servers located over a firewall
Answer: A

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Reference:http://hpsws.lithium.com/hpsws/attachments/hpsws/QC_SUP/ 508 /1 /(page 181, second
bulleted point on the page)

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Exam Code: HP0-J62
Exam Name: HP (HP Storage Solutions Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 93 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A company is planning an online backup strategy for a highly available database
application. Which key component must be included in the backup strategy?
A. Rollback logs
B. Temp logs
C. Transaction logs
D. Event logs
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which functions are provided by server-based storage virtualization? (Select two.)
A. Host path failover
B. Volume sharing among multiple servers
C. Performance load balancing of SAN connections
D. Intelligent LUN expansion and reduction
E. Thin provisioning
Answer: B, E

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NO.3 What is a main difference between Small Form Factor Pluggable (SFP) and Small Form
Factor Pluggable plus (SFP+) modules?
A. Port density
B. Physical size
C. Maximum transfer rate
D. Different pinout
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which device typically has a SCSi ID of?
A. Narrow SCSi tape
B. SCSi host adapter
C. Bootable Hard Drive
D. First . . . device
Answer: B

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NO.5 A mid-sized company with a small virtual tape library needs to implement a low-cost
deduplication strategy. The data to be backed up is in a variety of formats and is not
mission-critical. Which deduplication technology meets this company's requirements?
A. Hash-based chunking
B. Object-level differencing
C. Post-copy comparison
D. Host-level file swapping
Answer: B

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NO.6 A company needs a solution that provides storage only as needed. The company's goal
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operating expenditures. Which type of storage implementation meets these
requirements?
A. Thin provisioning
B. Scale-out storage arrays
C. Scale-up storage servers
D. Virtual storage arrays
Answer: D

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NO.7 A company is planning to implement a backup and archiving solution. They have the
following requirements:
• Corrupt data files must be restored within seconds
• Archived data must be available for 15 years.
• Archived data must be stored off-site.
Which types of solutions should the company use? (Select two.)
A. Remote replication for backup data
B. Remote replication for archived data
C. Tape-based storage for backup data
D. Tape-based storage for archived data
E. Disk-based storage for backup data
F. Disk-based storage for archived data
Answer: A, D

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Exam Code: HP2-H26
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Client Virtualization Solutions - Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is important to point out when presenting HP t410 Smart Zero Clients to customers?
A. Benefits of the TERA2321 PCoIP processor
B. Benefits of the Texas Instruments ARM Cortex processor
C. Benefits of the Man/ell ARM Armada 510 processor with integrated graphics
D. Its small size and large data storage capacity
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h10010.www1.hp.com/wwpc/us/en/sm/WF05a/12454-12454-321959-338927523
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NO.2 How can a client virtualization solution reduce the occurrence of unused software licenses in a
network environment?
A. It allows users to share individual software licenses over the network.
B. It allows IT to obtain mass software licenses for the standard image to save on individual licensing
needs.
C. It allows IT to manage and control software installed on each separate client image so that each
user has only the required software.
D. It reduces the need for individual users to access specific applications because they can use the
functionality of community software on the server.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is an indicator that the customer is shopping for a thin client rather than a
solution?
A. The customer is deciding on an architecture.
B. The customer is interested in hardware specifications, protocol support, and cost.
C. The customer is a year or more away from a large-scale production deployment.
D. The customer is considering how to integrate with the entire IT infrastructure: secure data, data
center space, and application support
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which operating system can lock down the thin client on the first startup and require the user
to configure the password on the first use?
A. HP TeemTalk
B. HP ThinState
C. HP Smart Zero Core
D. HP Device Manager
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statements are benefits of the HP Client Virtualization solution? (Select two.)
A. Faster and more efficient network communications.
B. Lower acquisition costs
C. More computing power for locally installed client office applications
D. Simplified maintenance and support
E. More workplace flexibility
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 Which client characteristics can be opportunities for client virtualization? (Select two.)
A. insistent on maintaining use of Windows XP for client computers
B. interest in high-power, graphics-intensive processors
C. desire to reduce desk-side IT support
D. loyal to Citrix over VMware as a client virtualization option a potential security breach resulting
from stolen data
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which free HP Thin Client manageability solution is a centralized, secure, enterprise class, and
comprehensive management solution?
A. HP ThinState
B. HP Power Assistant
C. HP Device Manager
D. HP Easy Tools
Answer: A

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NO.8 Why should a customer rethink the idea of using PCs in place of thin clients in a client
virtualization environment?
A. PCs are difficult to secure and require more manageability.
B. PCs increase network traffic, causing more time and cost in management
C. PCs are more secure, more agile, and adaptable to the workforce.
D. Thin clients cost more than PCs. but provide more functionality.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-B103
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Security - Technical)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 53 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Why are job accounting audit trails useful for imaging and printing devices?
A. They restrict the use of color printing as needed.
B. They demonstrate that printers are being used.
C. They demonstrate that regulatory compliance is taking place.
D. They are used in accountant offices during tax season.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which competitive advantages does HP offer for security when combined with printing and
imaging devices? (Select three.)
A. HP approaches security holistically.
B. HP partners with hacker organizations.
C. HP is the undeniable expert in securing and backing up networked data.
D. HP Web Jetadmin is the industry leading utility for managing imaging and printing devices.
E. HP is the undisputed leader in imaging and printing.
F. HP encrypts all printer data before sending it across a network.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 What happens as the result of inconsistent security methods from multiple print vendors in an
imaging and printing environment?
A. There is a reduction in IT spending.
B. IT departments can easily manage and monitor security across the imaging and printing
environment.
C. Overall system security is weakened.
D. Companies are forced to be more accountable for how information is managed, shared and
archived overtime.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are components in the HP Imaging and Printing Security framework? (Select four.)
A. Secure your data.
B. Secure your printing devices.
C. Protect your printed documents.
D. Improve workflow through authenticating network devices.
E. Reduce network traffic.
F. Monitor and manage your printing fleet.
G. Enable print job tracking and accounting.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.5 What are the advantages of paper-based assets? (Select three.)
A. easier to carry
B. easier to create
C. easier to copy
D. inexpensive to create
E. easier to read
F. easier to work on and make notations
G. easier to store and retrieve
Answer: C,E,G

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NO.6 Why must the imaging and printing environment be secure?
A. Most imaging and printing devices are no longer simple network appliances.
B. Most imaging and printing devices are network appliances and need protection from physical
theft.
C. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technologies) requires it.
D. IEEp2600 standards require it.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Why is job accounting information gathered and utilized for billing and pay-for-use? (Select
three.)
A. to aid in installing, configuring and managing printer fleets remotely
B. to demonstrate that a company is making efforts to protect information
C. to gather data so it can be encrypted for security reasons
D. to track network usage and make network telephony changes
E. to show proof of compliance to regulators
F. to detect abuse of information sharing and digital communication outside the company
G. to create an electronic workflow for archiving hard copies
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.8 How can people easily find information on how to hack into unsecured printers?
A. by searching the Internet
B. by searching www.hp.com
C. by searching on the word "hacking" on the NIST website
D. by using the Microsoft Windows Vista Help menu
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Implementer File Services-NAS)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 During a data migration, which three steps should be performed to validate the consistency of the
source and destination shares/exports? (Choose three.)
A. Compare the available capacity on source and destination.
B. Compare the share/export permissions on source and destination.
C. Compare the MD5/SHA256 checksum of the directory tree.
D. Compare the number of files on source and destination.
E. Compare the number of directories on source and destination.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Your customer has files that they would like to reverse migrate using Data Migrator. Which two valid
arguments can be used to specify the files? (Choose two.)
A. inode
B. pattern
C. acl
D. age
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 A customer wants to use Hitachi NAS Platform snapshots and asks you about file system space usage.
Which two statements describe the file system space utilization when using snapshots? (Choose two.)
A. The snapshot technique uses Copy-on-Write (CoW).
B. The snapshot delta data is in the same file system area as the live data.
C. The delta data is first copied to a differential volume before data is modified in the live file system.
D. When live data is not modified, the snapshot does not consume any space.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 A large movie production studio approaches an HDS sales team with a request to build a large
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to access a Hitachi NAS Platform. Which file service would have to be enabled to allow access?
A. SSH
B. WebDAV
C. HTTP
D. NFS
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your customer wants to obtain the Management Information Base (MIB) to integrate a Hitachi NAS
Platform into their Event Management framework. What are two ways to obtain the MIB? (Choose two.)
A. Download the Enterprise MIB module from EVS.
B. Download the Enterprise MIB module from the Web Manager GUI.
C. Download the Enterprise MIB module from HiTrack.
D. Contact the Hitachi Data Systems Support Center for the latest Enterprise MIB.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 What are two benefits of the Clustered Name Space (CNS) feature of the Hitachi NAS Platform file
system? (Choose two.)
A. With CNS, network access to configured storage resources can be made through a single CIFS share
or NFS export.
B. CNS provides the mechanism for automatic load balancing.
C. CNS virtualizes network resources, allowing multiple nodes in a cluster to appear as a single node.
D. CNS virtualizes storage resources, allowing multiple file systems to appear as a single large file
system.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which three components of a Hitachi NAS Platform 3080 or 3090 Generation 1 (G1) node are hot
swappable? (Choose three.)
A. PSU
B. fans
C. battery pack
D. the hardware FPGA board
E. internal hard drive (HDD)
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 What are two valid steps when upgrading the SMU software in a Hitachi NAS Platform 3080 cluster?
(Choose two.)
A. Mount the CD using the command "mount /dev/*.iso".
B. Mount the CD using the command "mount /media/cdrecorder".
C. Connect a serial cable to the SMU and start a terminal session using settings 9600 b/s, 8, 1, no parity,
no flow control settings.
D. Connect a serial cable to the SMU and start a terminal session using settings 115200 b/s, 8, 1, no
parity, no flow control settings.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 According to Hitachi Data Systems best practices, how should storage pools, file systems and virtual
servers be configured?
A. The file system auto-expansion feature should be used to expand a file system across different storage
pools.
B. Storage pools should be created with system drives of identical performance and size.
C. File systems should be shared across multiple virtual servers for redundancy.
D. File systems from the same storage pool should be assigned to virtual servers on different Hitachi NAS
Platform nodes.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are implementing a Hitachi NAS Platform into a customer environment. The customer will
implement anti-virus scanning on their system. Which protocol is supported by the Hitachi NAS Platform
for communication with the anti-virus servers?
A. Remote Procedure Call (RPC)
B. Network File System (NFS)
C. NAS Security Protocol (NSP)
D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two advanced networking features can be used to optimize network throughput within the Hitachi
NAS Platform.? (Choose two.)
A. jumbo frames
B. Cisco Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)
C. 802.3ad Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)
D. 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 Which statement describes the Hitachi NAS Platform file system architecture?
A. The file system size may be reduced non-disruptively.
B. The file system is not subject to fragmentation.
C. The file system unifies directory structure and presents a single logical view.
D. The file system spans across multiple storage pools.
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are upgrading from a Hitachi NAS Platform model 3080 to model 3100. Which two configuration
parameters might be affected? (Choose two.)
A. mount and share parameters
B. Fibre Channel fabric zoning
C. replication policies
D. LUN security in the secure storage domains
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 When performing a microcode upgrade, what information is stored in the cluster/server configuration
backup? (Choose three.)
A. network configuration
B. cluster node names
C. CIFS share names
D. Quorum Device (QD) configuration
E. NFS export names
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.15 Which Fibre Channel (FC) speed settings are supported on the Hitachi NAS Platform host ports?
A. The FC host ports support 1 Gb, 2 Gb, or 4 Gb, where 1 Gb is the default.
B. The FC host ports support 1 Gb, 2 Gb, or 4 Gb, where 2 Gb is the default.
C. The FC host ports support 1 Gb, 2 Gb, or 4 Gb, where 4 Gb is the default.
D. The FC host ports support 2 Gb, 4 Gb, or 8 Gb, where 8 Gb is the default.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: QQ0-100
Exam Name: HDI (HDI qualified help desk analyst(hda))
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Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What are two benefits of encouraging customers to follow standard procedures? (Choose two.)
A. Improves quality and accuracy
B. Helps customers make better decisions
C. Results in customers calling less frequently D. Keeps customers up-to-date on new applications
Answer: AB

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NO.2 What two considerations need to be made when sharing workspace? (Choose two.)
A. Maintain a clean environment
B. Discretion and courtesy when decorating
C. Share only with persons with similar likes/dislikes
D. None, each person needs to take care of it themselves
Answer: AB

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NO.3 Which two are effective techniques for dealing with stress? (Choose two.)
A. Take long breaks
B. Set realistic goals/objectives
C. Exercise and observe good nutrition practices
D. Use high energy drinks, e.g., coffee, caffeine drinks to keep energy levels up
Answer: BC

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NO.4 Why are customer satisfaction surveys important?
A. They reveal what abandon rate is acceptable
B. They reveal how the help desk is perceived by the customer
C. They determine the percentage of first call resolution (FCR)
D. They determine what level of support the customer is receiving
Answer: B

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NO.5 For which two reasons do help desk's log all calls? (Choose two.)
A. Allows ticket monitoring
B. Measure frequency of calls
C. Prove the help desk is right
D. Provide an audit trail of activities
Answer: BD

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NO.6 You are having a trouble understanding a customer with a strong accent. The first thing you should do
is ______?
A. Find someone else who can understand the customer better
B. Tell the customer you are having difficulty understanding them
C. Ask the customer is there is someone else in their organisation for you to talk to
D. Inform the customer that you cannot understand them and there is nothing you can do to help them
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two are the primary purpose of an annual (periodic) survey? (Choose two.)
A. Determine management bonuses
B. Identify changes to products, services and processes
C. Measure performance of individual analysts at the help desk
D. Evaluate customer satisfaction with products, services, and personnel
Answer: BD

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NO.8 What is the number one goal of support services?
A. To give technical support to anyone who calls
B. To resolve all calls requiring technical support
C. To obtain information for any questions that are asked
D. To keep the customer performing at the highest level possible
Answer: D

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NO.9 In which four circumstances is it appropriate to use open questions? (Choose three.)
A. When your time is limited
B. When you need to build rapport
C. When you need the customer to elaborate
D. When you have exhausted your possibilities
Answer: BCD

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the presentation to print. You ask questions about the problem, but the customer keeps talking about
what will happen to her if she does not have the presentation ready. Which two actions should you take to
get the customer's attention? (Choose two.)
A. Empathise with the customer
B. Tell the customer to "snap out of it"
C. Regularly use the customer's first name
D. Raise your voice when asking questions
Answer: AC

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NO.11 An analyst has conveyed incorrect information to a customer. Which action demonstrates personal
accountability?
A. The analyst has another analyst call the customer
B. The analyst closes the call and moves to the next call
C. The analyst calls the customer back to correct the information
D. The analyst calls the customer back and blames the incorrect information on bad documentation
Answer: C

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NO.12 A customer calls with a printing problem. You start the troubleshooting process by asking some simple
questions. The customer admits that this is his first time using a computer Which three questions should
be used to obtain necessary information to solve the problem? (Choose three.)
A. Ask the customer if he is the only one who can print to this printer
B. Ask the customer if a start button or disk icon appears on the screen
C. Ask the customer if he has experienced any problems recently with any other applications
D. Guide the customer through checking the printer connection and making sure the power is turned on
Answer: ACD

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NO.13 What should you do to assess a customer level of knowledge? What should you do to assess a
customer? level of knowledge?
A. Ask open questions
B. Ask closed questions
C. Provide more detailed explanations
D. Assume the customer has a basic level of knowledge
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which two organisational characteristics are typically found in a supportive workplace environment?
(Choose two.)
A. High employee morale
B. Low employee turnover
C. High adherence to policies
D. Low superior-subordinate interaction
Answer: AB

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NO.15 What are three reasons for providing consistent service? (Choose three.)
A. To guarantee professionalism
B. To instill confidence in your customer
C. To ensure a commitment to excellence
D. To ensure empathy to customer needs
Answer: ABC

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NO.16 What is a key benefit of a knowledge-base system?
A. Increases call volume
B. Saves time and money
C. Decreases network traffic
D. Requires lower maintenance
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the primary role of support service?
A. To track problems and bugs
B. To provide quality assistance
C. To provide technical resolutions
D. To provide the customer with a knowledge-base
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which two are characteristics of a team player? (Choose two.)
A. Courtesy
B. Conformity
C. Participation
D. Independence
Answer: AC

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NO.19 Which three approaches help create a positive business reputation? (Choose three.)
A. When you hear complaints about your organisation, change the subject
B. Have a good attitude and never speak negatively about your organisation
C. See what you can do to assist any co-worker who is unhappy or experiencing problems
D. Try to have a positive and memorable effect on every person you communicate with each day
Answer: BCD

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NO.20 Which technique will best optimise talk time?
A. Analyst asks clarifying questions
B. Analyst uses business language
C. Customer should be prepared to actively listen
D. Analyst adjusts to customer pace and competence level Analyst adjusts to customer? pace and
competence level
Answer: D

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Exam Code: GB0-323
Exam Name: H3C (Constructing Enterprise-level Switching Networks)
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Total Q&A: 300 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 802.1x
A. 802.1x
B.
C.
D. EAPOL
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Quidway VRRP
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 VLAN
A. IP
B.
C. MAC
D.
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 802.1Q VLAN tag
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.5 IGMP
A. igmp timer query seconds
B. igmp timer query seconds
C. igmp max-response-time seconds
D. igmp timer other-querier-present seconds
Answer: ACD

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NO.6 STP Max Age
T. True
F. False
Answer: T

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NO.7 A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. DVMRP
D. IGMP
Answer: D

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NO.8 STP RSTP
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.9 Quidway S
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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NO.10 IGMP
IP
T. True
F. False
Answer: T

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NO.11 STP
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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NO.12 VRRP
A. VRRP
B. VRRP HSRP
C. VRRP
D. VRRP IP PC
Answer: C

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NO.13 100M/Full
A. 100M/Full
B. 100M/Half
C. 10M/Full
D. 10M/Half
Answer: B

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NO.14 A. GVRP
B. GMRP
C. IGMP
D. PIM
Answer: C

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NO.15 VRRP
A. VRRP MD5
B. VRRP
C. VRRP VRRP 1-255
D. VRRP IP PC
Answer: AC

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NO.16 IEEE802.3x
PAUSE MAC
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 96
Answer: C

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NO.17 Quidway
A. console
B. Xmodem
C. telnet
D. modem
Answer: B

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NO.18 A. RSTP STP
B. MSTP VLAN
C. MSTP
D. RSTP
Answer: B

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NO.19 GARP GVRP GMRP
A.
B. GVRP GMRP GARP
C. GVRP 802.1Q VLAN
D. GVRP GVRP
Answer: BD

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NO.20 IEEE 802.1P VLAN VLAN
VLAN VLAN
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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NO.21 GARP
A. Switch VLAN
B. Switch
C. VLAN
D. VLAN
Answer: ABCD

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NO.22 CSMA/CD
A. CDMA
B. CSMA/CD /
C. HUB
D.
Answer: B

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NO.23 802.1D Disabled
A.
B. BPDU
C. BPDU
D. BPDU
E. BPDU
Answer: A

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NO.24 STP Spanning Tree Protocal
A.
B.
C. RSTP
D. SSTP
Answer: AB

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NO.25 A. 223.0.0.1
B. IGMP
C. PIM-DM RP
D.
Answer: B

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NO.26 RSTP
A. RSTP
B. RSTP
C.
D.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.27 PC1 PC2 PC3 Quidway SwitchA E0/1 E0/2
E0/3 VLAN10
20 30 G1/1 VLAN100 PC
A. E0/1 Access PVID VLAN 10
B. E0/2 Hybrid Untagged VLAN ID 100 Tagged VLAN ID 10
C. E0/2 Hybrid Untagged VLAN ID 20 100 Tagged VLAN ID none
D. G1/1 Hybrid Untagged VLAN ID 10 20 30 Tagged VLAN ID 100
Answer: C

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NO.28 PIM Hello
A. PIM 224.0.0.13 Hello PIM
B. Hello DR
C. IGMP
D. IGMP V1 DR(IP ) IGMP V1
Answer: ABD

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NO.29 VRRP
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.9
C. 224.0.0.18
D. 224.0.0.28
Answer: C

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NO.30 A. STP
B. MSTP
C. RSTP
D. PPTP
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Fortinet (Fortinet Certified Email Security Professional)
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NO.1 Which of the following statements is true regarding Session-based antispam techniques?
A. The entire mail content is inspected.
B. They are enabled in the session profile only.
C. SMTP commands, sender domain and IP address are checked.
D. They are checked after application-based antispam techniques.
Answer: C

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7. A FortiMail administrator must enforce the following company policy:
1. All emails containing executable attachments must be detected.
2. This detection must be file name independent. For example, if a user renames an executable
from .exe to .txt, the file should still be detected.
Which FortiMail inspection technique should the administrator apply?
A. Content profile > Attachment filtering rule to block all executable extensions
B. Content profile > File Type filtering rule to block all executable files
C. Antispam profile > Banned Word entry to block all executable files
D. Content profile > Content Monitor entry to block all executable files
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is one reason for deploying a FortiMail unit in Transparent Mode?
A. DNS records do not necessarily have to be modified.
B. Mail is not queued thereby expediting mail delivery.
C. Mail is not inspected unless a policy explicitly matches the traffic.
D. No user information needs to be stored on the FortiMail unit when operating in Transparent
Mode.
Answer: A

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NO.3 How can a FortiMail administrator view or search archived emails?
A. through POP3, IMAP or Web-based manager
B. through POP3 and IMAP
C. through Webmail only
D. through Web-based manager only
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following FortiMail profile types apply to IP-based policies only?
A. Session profile
B. Content profile
C. IP pool
D. Antispam profile
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 What is the recommended procedure to identify emails encoded in a specific charset?
A. Configure a Dictionary profile entry and associate it to the content profile section Content
Monitor and Filtering.
B. Create a banned word entry in an Antispam profile.
C. Charset encoding cannot be detected.
D. Enable Heuristic Scanning in an Antivirus profile.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following back-end servers can NOT be used to provide Recipient Verification?
A. LDAP servers
B. POP3 servers
C. RADIUS servers
D. SMTP servers
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: EW0-300
Exam Name: Extreme Networks (Extreme Networks Specialist....)
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Total Q&A: 158 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 According
to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible to telnet
from host A to any of the switch IP addresses.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 In PIM sparse mode the Bootstrap Router election is based on the highest IP
address.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 When limit-learning is configured on a port and the limit is reached the following
traffic still flows to the port.
A. Packets destined for the active Mac addresses
B. Broadcast traffic
C. EDP traffic
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 On a RADIUS server you can distinguish between switch access and Netlogin
authentication. Extreme provides a vendor specific attribute
Extreme:Extreme-Netlogin-only =disabled/enabled.
User authentication for both Netlogin and switch access is allowed when the value is
disabled.
When the value enabled user authentication is restricted to Netlogin only.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 An LSP is a link state packet used by which routing protocol?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. None of these
Answer: D

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NO.6 The following modes of operation are supported with the Network login feature.
(choose all that apply)
A. Secure mode
B. Campus mode
C. Quick Mode
D. ISP mode
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.7 Which CLI command configures DVMRP on all IP multicast interfaces.
A. config dvmrp add vlan all
B. config dvmrp add all
C. enable dvmrp
D. enable dvmrp vlan all
Answer: A

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NO.8 In Extreme Ware, which one of the following is an optional ESRP configuration
that allows you to connect active hosts directly to an ESRP master or standby
switch.
A. ESRP Groups
B. ESRP Domain
C. ESRP Host Attach
D. None of these
Answer: C

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NO.9 The following CLI command is valid to advertise SLB virtual servers in OSPF ith a
cost of 10.
Enable ospf export vip cost 10
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.10 In OSPF, the router type that is required to connect an area with another area is
the:
A. Designated Router
B. Back-up Designated Router
C. ASBR
D. ABR
Answer: D

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NO.11 It is possible to set an STP-threshold to switch from a shared tree to a shortest path
tree. This switch over will be initiated by:
A. The Rendezvous Point
B. The Bootstrap Router
C. A last hop router
D. The router nearest to the source
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the CLI command you would use to configure a VLAN to be protected by
ESRP?
A. enable esrp vlan <vlan>
B. enable esrp vlan <vlan> detail
C. config esrp vlan <vlan>
D. config esrp vlan <vlan> detail
Answer: A

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NO.13 How does an IGMP router learns about the existence of hosts in multicast groups:
A. By receiving a response on an IGMP membership query
B. By looking into the ARP cache
C. There is no dynamic learning process, instead static FDB entries are used
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.14 The majority of Extreme Networks switches have a dedicated out of band
management port and VLAN. The 10/100BASE-TX Ethernet management port
allows you to communicate directly to the CPU of the switch. If you want the switch
to forward traffic from the mgmt VLAN to other VLANS you just have to enable
ipforwarding on all VLANS including the management VLAN.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.15 ESRP-enabled switches can utilize either an IP address or an IPX net ID for their
protected VLANs.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.16 EAPS protection switching is similar to what can be achieved with the Spanning
Tree Protocol but one of the big advantages of EAPS is:
A. EAPS also supports star topologies
B. EAPS has a recovery time of less than a second in case of link failure.
C. An EAPS domain supports multiple root bridges, thus alternative path
D. EAPS eliminates the need for protocols like ESRP or VRRP that bring default
gateway redundancy.
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the RP-set?
A. It is the information of which RP are available for what Multicast groups.
It is send by the BSR towards all PIM routers
B. It is the information of which multicast groups are active
It is send by the RP towards all PIM routers
C. It is the information of which BSR are available for what Multicast groups.
It is send by RP towards all PIM routers
D. It is the information, stored by all RP, needed to find the BSR,
Answer: A

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NO.18 An Ethernet Automatic Protection Switching (EAPS) domain relies on a control
VLAN.
The ports in that control VLAN ports must be tagged, and participating in the ring
only.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.19 Extreme Networks IS? Chipset switches allows you to run simultaneously the
Radius and Tacacs+features.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.20 OSPF requires that all areas attach directly to the backbone area, and that all
attachments are made with a direct physical connection.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.21 The integrated IS-IS protocol allows for mixing of IP-only,OSI-only, and dual (IP
and OSI) routers.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following statements fit the description of PIM sparse mode? (choose
three that apply)
A. PIM sparse mode is suitable for network with minimal multicast deployment.
B. PIM sparse mode builds shared trees based on a common Rendez-Vous Point
C. In PIM sparse mode the RPF check depends on the tree type
D. An explicit join is not required in PIM sparse mode.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.23 On an Extreme Networks switch, how many bits comprise an OSPF area ID?
A. 32 BITS
B. 48 BITS
C. 64 BITS
D. 128 BITS
Answer: A

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NO.24 Extreme Ware 7.0 can support which OSPF authentication on a per VLAN basis:
A. MD5
B. Simple-password
C. Encrypted simple-password
D. All of these
Answer: D

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NO.25 Extreme ware 7.0 supports both level1 and level 2 IS-IS routers.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.26 How many bits in the IP TOS field does a Summit 48i examine?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.27 The maximum number of EAPS domains supported per switch and ring is?
A. 64
B. 32
C. 16
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.28 In SLB, Port Translation Mode is similar to Translation Mode,except that in Port
Translation Mode the physical Port where the node connects to must be configured
as a Fast Ethernet Half Duplex port.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.29 Exhibit:
According to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible for Host
A (10.10.10.100) and Host C (30.30.30.100) to successfully communicate.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.30 An IP-only IS-IS router (or "IP-only" router) is defined to be
A. A router which uses IS-IS as the routing protocol for IP
B. Does not otherwise support OSI protocols
C. One of the IS-IS router types
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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